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Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQ) with Answers – Page 37

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Indian Polity questions asked in previous year papers of SSC, Banking, Railway and other exams, with the exam and year, answers and explanations.

868 previous-year questions

Q721.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IHard

Which one of the following statements relating to the power of the President of India to grant pardon is not correct?

  1. A.The President has the power to grant pardon where punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial.
  2. B.The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
  3. C.The Court's power of judicial review is very limited in relation to the decision of the President on mercy petition.
  4. D.The power to grant pardon by the President is the power that the sovereign never exercises against its own judicial mandate.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The power to grant pardon by the President is the power that the sovereign never exercises against its own judicial mandate.

The pardoning power is exactly the power by which the sovereign, acting through the President, can set aside or soften the result of its own courts' judgment, so saying it is never exercised against the judicial mandate is wrong.

Q722.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

  1. A.the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
  2. B.the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
  3. C.Article 19 is suspended in that State.
  4. D.the President can make laws relating to that State.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

Under President's Rule, Article 356(1)(b) lets the President declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.

Q723.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IEasy

Which one of the following is the correct combination of languages included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. A.Nepali, Konkani, Tulu and Santhali
  2. B.Santhali, Urdu, Konkani and Maithili
  3. C.Santhali, Konkani, Bhojpuri and Urdu
  4. D.Dogri, Konkani, Bhojpuri and Urdu
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Santhali, Urdu, Konkani and Maithili

All four are among the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule. The Eighth Schedule began with 14 languages in 1950, Urdu among them.

Q725.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IMedium

Over which of the following, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha held joint sittings to resolve their differences? 1. The Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959 2. The Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978 3. The Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002 4. The Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only

Only three joint sittings have been held since 1950, and they were on exactly these three bills.

Q726.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IEasy

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People's responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only

The Rule of Law means that power is limited by law, everyone is equal before the law, and individual liberties are protected.

Q728.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IMedium

Which one of the following Committees of the Parliament has no Members from the Rajya Sabha?

  1. A.Public Accounts Committee
  2. B.Committee on Public Undertakings
  3. C.Estimates Committee
  4. D.Departmentally Related Standing Committee (DRSC) on Finance
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Estimates Committee

All 30 members of the Estimates Committee are elected by the Lok Sabha from among its own members; the Rajya Sabha has no place on it.

Q729.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IEasy

Consider the following statements :

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Article 361 shields the Governor from criminal proceedings during the term, and Article 158 protects the Governor's pay from being cut during it.

Q730.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?

  1. A.If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
  2. B.If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
  3. C.If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
  4. D.If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Liberty is not the absence of rules: without law, the strong could do as they pleased and no one else would be free.

Q731.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IMedium

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has enormously strengthened the powers of the Speaker/Chairman of the Houses of the Parliament/State Legislatures?

  1. A.61st Amendment which reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years
  2. B.Anti-defection provisions of 52nd Amendment
  3. C.Repealing of many of the provisions of 42nd Amendment by 44th Amendment
  4. D.73rd Amendment that conferred extensive powers on Panchayat Bodies
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Anti-defection provisions of 52nd Amendment

The 1985 amendment made the presiding officer of each House the authority who decides whether a member is disqualified for defection.

Q732.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IMedium

Sikkim became an Associate State of the Indian Union through

  1. A.the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975
  2. B.the Constitution (7th Amendment) Act, 1956
  3. C.the Constitution (35th Amendment) Act, 1974
  4. D.the Constitution (5th Amendment) Act, 1955
Show answer
Correct answer: C. the Constitution (35th Amendment) Act, 1974

It created the special status of "associate state" for Sikkim, a step short of full statehood. Sikkim had been an Indian protectorate since 1950.

Q733.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IMedium

Statement I : In India, a majority of the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislatures. Statement II : Members of the Rajya Sabha elected by the State Legislative Assemblies need to have their domicile in the concerned State.

  1. A.Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. B.Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  3. C.Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. D.Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Most Rajya Sabha members are chosen by MLAs, but no domicile is needed. Under Article 80, the Rajya Sabha can have at most 250 members: 12 nominated by the President and up to 238 representatives of the States and Union Territories.

Q734.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements : 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

An MLA's vote value depends on the State's population, but every elected MP, in either House, has the same vote value.

Q735.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct ?

  1. A.A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
  2. B.A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
  3. C.A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
  4. D.A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

A Money Bill covers appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India, not out of the Contingency Fund, so statement C is the incorrect one.

Q736.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

The 2006 Act did replace the 1954 Act, but FSSAI is an independent statutory authority, not an office under the Director General of Health Services.

Q737.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 only

Only statement 2 is right: under the RTE Act a primary teacher must clear a Teacher Eligibility Test held as per NCTE guidelines.

Q738.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

  1. A.Committee on Government Assurances
  2. B.Committee on Subordinate Legislation
  3. C.Rules Committee
  4. D.Business Advisory Committee
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation

This committee checks whether the rules, regulations and by-laws made by the executive under delegated powers stay within the limits Parliament set.

Q739.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IEasy

"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following ?

  1. A.Amnesty International
  2. B.International Court of Justice
  3. C.The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
  4. D.World Justice Project
Show answer
Correct answer: D. World Justice Project

The Rule of Law Index is published by the World Justice Project, an independent organisation based in Washington, D.C. The World Justice Project ranks countries on how far the rule of law is followed in practice, based on surveys of households and legal experts.

Q740.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements are wrong: Aadhaar proves identity, not citizenship, and it can be deactivated.