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RRB Group D 2026: Exam Pattern, Syllabus, PET, Eligibility, Dates and Preparation

RRB Group D is the common name for the Railway Recruitment Boards' recruitment to posts in Level-1 of the 7th CPC pay matrix: Trackmaintainer-IV, Pointsman B and Assistant posts in the engineering, mechanical, electrical, signal and telecommunication and traffic departments of Indian Railways. The current cycle is CEN 09/2025, published on 31 January 2026 with 22,195 vacancies, and it drew 52.4 lakh applications. Selection runs through one Computer Based Test, a Physical Efficiency Test, document verification and a medical examination. The CBT has 100 questions in 90 minutes, and General Science and General Awareness and Current Affairs together make up 45 of them. This page gives the pattern, the syllabus, the PET standards, eligibility, age limits, this cycle's dates and the posts, all as per CEN 09/2025 and the RRBs' later notices, with GK24's daily current affairs, GK notes, quizzes and previous-year questions for the exam.

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RRB Group D at a glance

These facts are as per Centralised Employment Notification (CEN) No. 09/2025 of the Railway Recruitment Boards for various posts in Level-1 of the 7th CPC pay matrix, published on 31 January 2026, and the RRBs' later corrigenda and notices up to 7 September 2026.

ItemDetail
Conducting bodyRailway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), Ministry of Railways, on behalf of the Railway Recruitment Cells (RRCs) of the zonal railways
CycleCEN 09/2025 (Level-1): applications 31 January to 9 March 2026, CBT 3 to 25 August 2026
PostsTrackmaintainer-IV, Pointsman B, Assistant (S and T), Assistant TRD, Assistant TL and AC, Assistant Operations (Electrical), Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical), Assistant Carriage and Wagon, Assistant Track Machine, Assistant Bridge and Assistant P.Way
Vacancies22,195 as notified in the CEN of 31 January 2026 (provisional; may increase or decrease)
Applications received52,39,760 (RRBs' notice of 25 August 2026)
StagesComputer Based Test (CBT), Physical Efficiency Test (PET), Document Verification (DV) and Medical Examination (ME)
CBT100 objective multiple-choice questions, 100 marks, 90 minutes
Negative markingOne-third mark for every wrong answer
Minimum marks for shortlistingUR and EWS 40%; OBC-NCL, SC and ST 30%
Eligibility10th pass, or ITI, or equivalent, or National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC) granted by NCVT; age 18 to 33 years as on 1 January 2026
Application fee₹500, of which ₹400 is refunded on appearing in the CBT; ₹250 for SC, ST, Ex-Servicemen, PwBD, women, transgender, minority and EBC candidates, refunded less bank charges on appearing
PayLevel-1 of the 7th CPC pay matrix, initial pay ₹18,000
Official siterrb.indianrailways.gov.in and the official RRB websites; applications through rrbapply.gov.in

Selection process

  1. Online application on the RRB portal, with one account for all RRB notices. A candidate can apply to one RRB only and gives preferences for the posts and the zonal railways or production units under it. Options once submitted are final, and more than one application leads to rejection of all of them.
  2. Computer Based Test (CBT). CEN 09/2025 provides for a single-stage CBT, though the Railway Administration keeps the right to hold it in two stages and treat the first as qualifying. For this cycle the CBT was held from 3 to 25 August 2026 in several shifts, so marks are normalised.
  3. Answer key and objections. After the CBT, candidates can view their questions, responses and the answer keys and raise objections at ₹50 per question plus bank charges, refunded if the objection is upheld. For CEN 09/2025 this window was open from 7 September (20:00) to 17 September 2026 (23:55).
  4. Physical Efficiency Test (PET). Candidates equal to three times the community-wise vacancies of each RRB/RRC are called on CBT merit. The PET is qualifying only; its standards are given below. PwBD candidates, Ex-Servicemen and Course Completed Act Apprentices are exempt from it.
  5. Document Verification (DV). Candidates equal to the number of vacancies (1:1) are called on CBT merit, subject to qualifying the PET. Original certificates must be produced on the date given; no additional time is allowed.
  6. Medical Examination. Every candidate called for DV must pass the medical fitness test of the Railway Administration for the standard of the post opted for (A-2, A-3, B-1 or C-1). A candidate found unfit for the post opted for is not offered any alternative post; the candidate may be offered one final medical appeal on payment of the prescribed charges.
  7. Empanelment by the RRC of the zonal railway and appointment by the Railway Administration after verification of certificates and antecedents.

Normalisation follows the RRBs' notice on normalisation methodology of February 2026. The raw marks of every shift are converted to percentile scores (the topper of each shift gets 100), the percentiles of all shifts are merged into the RRC score used for merit, and normalised marks are worked out against the base shift, the shift with the highest average, to decide who has reached the minimum qualifying percentage. Ties are broken by age, the older candidate ranking higher, and then by the alphabetical order of the given name. Course Completed Act Apprentices trained in Railway establishments get weightage for their NCVT marks: one-third of the marks in the final merit list come from the NCVT examination, or the CBT marks alone are taken if that is higher. The PET, DV, medical examination and empanelment for Level-1 posts are conducted by the RRCs, and their dates appear on the RRC websites.

Exam pattern

SectionQuestionsMarks
General Science2525
Mathematics2525
General Intelligence and Reasoning3030
General Awareness and Current Affairs2020
Total100100

The duration is 90 minutes, or 120 minutes for candidates eligible for a scribe. Each question carries 1 mark, and one-third mark is deducted for every wrong answer. The CEN says the section-wise distribution is indicative and the actual paper may vary a little. The minimum marks for shortlisting are 40% for UR and EWS and 30% for OBC-NCL, SC and ST, relaxable by 2 marks for PwBD candidates where there is a shortage against the vacancies reserved for them. Mock tests are put on the RRB websites before the exam; for CEN 09/2025 the mock test link went live on 28 July 2026.

General Science and General Awareness syllabus

CEN 09/2025 gives an illustrative syllabus for each section and says the topics are not exhaustive.

General Science (25 questions)

Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences of 10th standard level (CBSE).

General Awareness and Current Affairs (20 questions)

General awareness on current affairs in Science and Technology, Sports, Culture, Personalities, Economics, Politics and any other subject of importance.

Mathematics (25 questions)

Number system, BODMAS, decimals, fractions, LCM, HCF, ratio and proportion, percentages, mensuration, time and work, time and distance, simple and compound interest, profit and loss, algebra, geometry and trigonometry, elementary statistics, square root, age calculations, calendar and clock, pipes and cistern.

General Intelligence and Reasoning (30 questions)

Analogies, alphabetical and number series, coding and decoding, mathematical operations, relationships, syllogism, jumbling, Venn diagram, data interpretation and sufficiency, conclusions and decision making, similarities and differences, analytical reasoning, classification, directions, statement, arguments and assumptions.

How GK24 covers it (guidance)

This paragraph is GK24's guidance, not the CEN. General Science and General Awareness together are 45 of the 100 questions, and both are recall sections: a fact is either known or it is not, and a guess costs one-third mark. GK24's General Science notes are written topic by topic at the Class 10 level the CEN names: motion, force and laws of motion, work, energy and power, gravitation, heat, light, sound, electricity and magnetism, atomic structure and the periodic table, chemical reactions, acids, bases and salts, metals and non-metals, carbon compounds and everyday chemistry; for Life Sciences, cells and tissues, the systems of the human body, nutrition and vitamins, diseases, plant biology, and genetics and evolution. For General Awareness, the daily current affairs cover the areas the CEN lists (science and technology, sports, culture, personalities, economy, politics), and the GK notes on sports, awards and honours, days and dates, books and authors, art and culture, and static GK, including Indian Railways zones and facts, cover the static side of these 20 questions.

Physical Efficiency Test

The PET is mandatory and qualifying. Candidates equal to three times the community-wise vacancies are called on CBT merit, and the Railways may change this ratio.

TestMale candidatesFemale candidates
Weight lifting and carryingLift and carry 35 kg for 100 metres in 2 minutes, in one chance, without putting the weight downLift and carry 20 kg for 100 metres in 2 minutes, in one chance, without putting the weight down
Running1,000 metres in 4 minutes 15 seconds, in one chance1,000 metres in 5 minutes 40 seconds, in one chance

The weight test comes first: a sandbag without handles is lifted from a bench or platform at about waist height and carried in any manner to the finishing point without dropping it. A candidate who fails it is eliminated there; those who pass run the 1,000 metres after a recovery gap. Transgender candidates are tested to the standards for female candidates. PwBD candidates, Ex-Servicemen and Course Completed Act Apprentices are exempt from the PET but must pass the medical examination prescribed for the post. A female candidate who declares that she is pregnant is declared temporarily unfit; her vacancy is kept reserved and she is tested six weeks after confinement. Candidates take the PET at their own risk of injury.

Eligibility and age limit

Nationality

A candidate must be a citizen of India, or a citizen of Nepal, a subject of Bhutan, a Tibetan refugee who came to India before 1 January 1962 to settle permanently, or a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, the East African countries of Kenya, Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia or Vietnam to settle permanently in India. Candidates other than Indian citizens need a certificate of eligibility from the Government of India, to be produced at DV.

Educational qualification

10th pass, or ITI, or equivalent, or a National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC) granted by NCVT, for every post in the CEN. The qualification had to be held on the closing date of applications; candidates awaiting results were not eligible. A diploma or degree in engineering is not accepted in place of ITI or a Course Completed Act Apprenticeship for Level-1 posts.

Age limit

CategoryAge as on 1 January 2026Date of birth between (both inclusive)
UR and EWS18 to 33 years2 January 1993 and 1 January 2008
OBC-NCL18 to 36 years (3 years' relaxation)2 January 1990 and 1 January 2008
SC and ST18 to 38 years (5 years' relaxation)2 January 1988 and 1 January 2008

Other relaxations in the upper age limit: Ex-Servicemen with at least six months' service after attestation get 3 years (UR and EWS), 6 years (OBC-NCL) or 8 years (SC and ST) after deducting their length of service; PwBD candidates get 10, 13 or 15 years; serving Group C and erstwhile Group D Railway staff and substitutes with at least three years' service can apply up to 40, 43 or 45 years; women who are widowed, divorced or judicially separated and have not remarried up to 35, 38 or 40 years; and Course Completed Act Apprentices trained in Railway establishments get relaxation to the extent of their apprenticeship, up to 3, 6 or 8 years. Only the highest of the relaxations a candidate is entitled to applies; they do not add up. The date of birth in the Matriculation or SSLC certificate is final.

Medical standards

StandardPostsDistant visionNear vision and other tests
A-2Pointsman B6/9, 6/9 without glasses (no fogging test)Sn. 0.6, 0.6 without glasses; colour, binocular, night and mesopic vision tests
A-3Assistant Track Machine6/9, 6/9 with or without glasses (power of lenses not over 2D)Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses; colour, binocular, night and mesopic vision tests
B-1Trackmaintainer-IV, Assistant Bridge, Assistant P.Way, Assistant TRD, Assistant TL and AC, Assistant (S and T) (Signal), Assistant Operations (Electrical) (General Services), Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical), Assistant Carriage and Wagon6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses (power of lenses not over 4D)Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required; colour, binocular, night and mesopic vision tests
C-1Assistant Operations (Electrical) (Workshop), Assistant (S and T) (Workshop)6/12, 6/18 with or without glassesSn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required

Candidates who have had Lasik or any other surgery to correct a refractive error are not eligible for the A-2 and A-3 posts, and are eligible for the B-1 and C-1 posts subject to the Railway Board's conditions. All standards require the candidate to be physically fit in all respects; the CEN calls them indicative and refers candidates to Chapter 5 of the Indian Railway Medical Manual.

Important dates

EventDate (CEN 09/2025)
Indicative notice in Employment News27 December 2025
Detailed CEN published31 January 2026
Online applications31 January to 9 March 2026 (23:59), extended from 2 March by Corrigendum No. 4
Last date for fee payment11 March 2026 (23:59)
Modification window (₹250 per occasion)12 to 21 March 2026
Scribe details window22 to 26 March 2026
Application status8 July 2026; revised status 9 August 2026
City intimation and e-call letter link25 July 2026
CBT3 to 6, 9 to 14, 17 to 21 and 25 August 2026 (16 days; revised schedule of 30 July 2026)
Answer key, responses and objections7 September (20:00) to 17 September 2026 (23:55)
CBT result and PET shortlistNot announced as on 25 September 2026
PET, DV and medical examinationTo be notified by the RRCs

The CBT was first scheduled for 3 to 21 August 2026 by the notice of 3 July 2026 and revised on 30 July 2026. The next stage for this cycle is the PET, whose dates the RRCs will publish once the CBT result is out; no date had been announced when this page was written. The RRBs' notice of 25 August 2026 counts 52,39,760 applications, the highest being 6,40,717 to RRB Chandigarh and 5,32,016 to RRB Mumbai.

How to prepare General Awareness for RRB Group D

General Science and General Awareness and Current Affairs are 45 marks that need no calculation, and with one-third negative marking they reward knowing rather than guessing. The exam is at Class 10 level, so breadth matters more than depth.

  1. Read the GK24 General Science notes for RRB Group D topic by topic: Physics first (motion, work and energy, light, sound, electricity), then Chemistry (atomic structure, acids, bases and salts, metals, carbon compounds), then Life Sciences (cells, human body systems, nutrition and diseases, plants, genetics). Twenty-five questions come from here.
  2. Read daily current affairs. GK24 publishes them every day in English and Hindi from official releases, tagged for Railway exams. Cover the 6 to 8 months before the CBT and revise each month at its end. The CEN names science and technology, sports, culture, personalities, economics and politics; read those first.
  3. Revise static GK with the GK notes: Indian Railways zones and facts, national symbols, first and largest in India, awards and honours, days and dates, books and authors, art and culture, and the basics of Polity, Geography and the Economy.
  4. Solve the RRB Group D previous-year questions on GK24 to see the level at which facts are asked and how the options are built.
  5. Take timed quizzes. Practise the GK24 quizzes for RRB Group D and learn to leave a question you do not know, because a wrong answer costs one-third mark and an unanswered one costs nothing.
  6. Train for the PET alongside. The weight-carrying test comes before the run and failing it ends the attempt; start carrying practice and timed 1,000-metre runs well before the result.

Posts and pay

All posts in CEN 09/2025 are in Level-1 of the 7th CPC pay matrix with an initial pay of ₹18,000. Annexure-A of the CEN lists 14 post categories; the same qualification and age limit apply to all, and they differ in department and medical standard.

Cat. No.Post (as in the CEN)DepartmentMedical standard
1Assistant TRDElectrical (TRD)B-1
2Assistant Operations (Electrical)Electrical (General Services)B-1
3Assistant TL and ACElectrical (General Services)B-1
4Assistant (S and T)S and T (Signal)B-1
5Pointsman BTrafficA-2
6Assistant Track MachineEngineering (Track Machine)A-3
7Trackmaintainer-IVEngineering (P.Way)B-1
8Assistant BridgeEngineering (Bridge)B-1
9Assistant Carriage and WagonMechanical (Carriage and Wagon)B-1
10Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical)Electrical (Electrical Shed)B-1
11Assistant P.WayEngineering (P.Way)B-1
12Assistant Operations (Electrical)Electrical (Workshop)C-1
13Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical)Electrical (Diesel Shed)B-1
14Assistant (S and T)S and T (Workshop)C-1

Vacancies are given railway-wise and post-wise in Annexure-B of the CEN; in the Western Railway (Mumbai) table, for example, Trackmaintainer-IV has 1,599 and Pointsman B 751 posts. Posts are allotted within the chosen RRB by merit and the preferences given in the application, and options once exercised are final. Vacancies for Course Completed Act Apprentices, Ex-Servicemen and PwBD candidates are earmarked horizontally within the totals.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is there negative marking in RRB Group D?

Yes. As per CEN 09/2025, one-third mark is deducted for every wrong answer in the Computer Based Test. Each question carries 1 mark, and an unanswered question carries no penalty.

What is the RRB Group D exam pattern?

The CBT has 100 objective questions of 1 mark each in 90 minutes: General Science 25, Mathematics 25, General Intelligence and Reasoning 30, and General Awareness and Current Affairs 20. The CEN calls this split indicative. One-third mark is deducted per wrong answer, and the minimum marks for shortlisting are 40% for UR and EWS and 30% for OBC-NCL, SC and ST. Marks are normalised across shifts.

What are the PET standards for RRB Group D?

Male candidates must lift and carry 35 kg for 100 metres in 2 minutes in one chance without putting the weight down, and run 1,000 metres in 4 minutes 15 seconds in one chance. Female candidates must carry 20 kg for 100 metres in 2 minutes and run 1,000 metres in 5 minutes 40 seconds. The weight test comes first; failing it ends the attempt. The PET is qualifying, and PwBD candidates, Ex-Servicemen and Course Completed Act Apprentices are exempt.

What are the age limit and qualification for RRB Group D (CEN 09/2025)?

Age 18 to 33 years as on 1 January 2026, with 3 years of relaxation for OBC-NCL and 5 years for SC and ST candidates, and further relaxations for Ex-Servicemen, PwBD, serving Railway staff, certain women candidates and Act Apprentices. The qualification is 10th pass, or ITI, or equivalent, or a National Apprenticeship Certificate granted by NCVT, held on the closing date of applications.

When is the RRB Group D 2026 result and PET?

The CBT for CEN 09/2025 was held from 3 to 25 August 2026, and the answer keys with the objection window were open from 7 to 17 September 2026. As on 25 September 2026 the RRBs had not announced the CBT result or the PET dates. The PET, document verification and medical examination for Level-1 posts are conducted by the Railway Recruitment Cells, which publish the dates on their websites.

What is the salary of RRB Group D posts?

All posts in CEN 09/2025 are in Level-1 of the 7th CPC pay matrix with an initial pay of ₹18,000 per month. Allowances are as admissible under Railway rules and are not specified in the CEN.

Is the RRB Group D application fee refunded?

Partly or fully, but only to candidates who appear in the CBT. Of the ₹500 fee, ₹400 is refunded after deducting bank charges. SC, ST, Ex-Servicemen, PwBD, women, transgender, minority and EBC candidates pay ₹250, all of which is refunded after deducting bank charges. The refund goes to the bank account seeded with the candidate's Aadhaar number.