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Indian Polity GK Questions with Answers

हिंदी में पढ़ें

Indian Polity multiple choice questions with answers and explanations, 20 per page, for SSC, Banking, UPSC, Railway and state exams.

1380 questions

Q1.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKEasy

The right to form associations and unions is a right

  1. A.guaranteed to everybody
  2. B.to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
  3. C.to equality before law
  4. D.to life and personal liberty
Show answer
Correct answer: B. to freedom guaranteed to citizens only

The right to form associations or unions is part of Article 19, and Article 19 rights belong only to citizens of India.

Q2.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKMedium

Which one of the following statements with regard to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?

  1. A.The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Tribes.
  2. B.All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
  3. C.The Commission, while investigating any matter, has all the powers of a Civil Court.
  4. D.The Commission has the power to regulate its own procedures.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. All the reports of the Commission and its recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.

It is not correct, because the President causes the Commission's reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, not only before the Lok Sabha.

Q3.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKHard

Which of the following statements with regard to the conduct of elections in India is/are not correct? 1. The responsibility for the preparation of the electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India. 2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence as soon as the date of the election is announced. 3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies are made by the Election Commission of India. 4. No election shall be called in question except by an election petition. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.4 only
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 3 only

Statement 3 is the only incorrect one, because laws on the delimitation of constituencies are made by Parliament, not by the Election Commission.

Q4.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKMedium

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?

  1. A.It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
  2. B.The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.
  3. C.The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure.
  4. D.The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an Act specified in the Ninth Schedule.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.

It is not correct, because Article 31B says the opposite: an Act placed in the Ninth Schedule shall not become void merely because it is inconsistent with a fundamental right in Part III.

Q5.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKEasy

The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains to the administration of tribal areas in which of the following States?

  1. A.Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
  2. B.Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram
  3. C.Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura
  4. D.Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

The Sixth Schedule covers the administration of tribal areas in exactly these four north-eastern states.

Q6.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKMedium

Which one of the following is not true about the powers of the Supreme Court?

  1. A.The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in inter-governmental disputes.
  2. B.The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a question of law or fact which may be referred to it by the President of India.
  3. C.The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgment or order.
  4. D.The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.

The power to issue writs for fundamental rights is not exclusive to the Supreme Court, because High Courts also issue writs under Article 226.

Q7.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKEasy

Which of the following are constitutional provisions and laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled Castes in India? 1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India 2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 3

All three protect the rights of the Scheduled Castes: one is a provision of the Constitution and two are laws made by Parliament to give it effect.

Q8.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2017, GKEasy

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? 1. The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court of Law. 2. The Preamble states the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote. 3. The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 only
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1, 2 and 3

All three statements describe the Preamble correctly. Statement 1 is correct: the Preamble is not a source of power and cannot by itself be enforced in a court; it is used to interpret the Constitution where the words of an Article are unclear.

Q10.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2017, GKMedium

Which one of the following statements about the All India Services is correct?

  1. A.The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.
  2. B.The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.
  3. C.The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.
  4. D.The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.

Under Article 312, Parliament may by law create new All India Services common to the Union and the States.

Q11.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2017, GKEasy

Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct?

  1. A.It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.
  2. B.The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.
  3. C.It is not enforceable by any Court.
  4. D.It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.
Show answer
Correct answer: A. It is a Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

The Uniform Civil Code is not a Fundamental Right. Article 44 sits in Part IV of the Constitution, among the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q12.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2018, GKEasy

In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

  1. A.Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
  2. B.Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
  3. C.Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
  4. D.Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail

VVPAT is a printer attached to the EVM that lets the voter see, on paper, that the vote went to the chosen candidate.

Q13.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2018, GKMedium

Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is not correct?

  1. A.It is not a discretionary power.
  2. B.The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.
  3. C.The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session.
  4. D.The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.

The Governor issues an ordinance only on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

Q14.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKHard

Which one of the following statements is not true of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

  1. A.This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence.
  2. B.Only women can make a complaint under this legislation.
  3. C.Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.
  4. D.The Act includes not just wives but also women in marriage-like relationships.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Relief may be sought only against the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship.

Relief under the Act is not limited to the husband or male partner; a complaint can also be filed against his relatives.

Q16.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKEasy

Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency can be declared if security of any part of India is threatened by 1. war 2. external aggression 3. armed rebellion 4. internal disturbance Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.2, 3 and 4
  3. C.1, 3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 2 only
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1, 2 and 3

Since the 44th Amendment of 1978, a National Emergency can be declared only on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

Q17.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2018, GKMedium

Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct? 1. It is a discretionary power. 2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

The Governor makes ordinances on the advice of the Council of Ministers and can withdraw them at any time.

Q18.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2018, GKEasy

Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?

  1. A.At least five years as a Judge of a High Court
  2. B.At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court
  3. C.In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist
  4. D.At least twenty years as a Sub-Judicial Magistrate
Show answer
Correct answer: D. At least twenty years as a Sub-Judicial Magistrate

Service as a subordinate magistrate is not one of the routes named in the Constitution.

Q19.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2016, GKMedium

According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

  1. A.To respect the National Flag
  2. B.To defend the country
  3. C.To provide education to one's child
  4. D.To promote village and cottage industries
Show answer
Correct answer: D. To promote village and cottage industries

This is a Directive Principle under Article 43, not a Fundamental Duty. Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A, added in Part IVA by the 42nd Amendment of 1976 on the advice of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Q20.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2017, GKEasy

Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct?

  1. A.No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.
  2. B.No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice.
  3. C.Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.
  4. D.The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.

Article 22(2) requires an arrested person to be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours, not one week.