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CDS GK Questions 2026

Static GK carries most of the 100 marks of the CDS General Knowledge paper. Of the 120 questions in the CDS (II) 2026 paper, about 20 were on Indian Polity, about 20 on the History of India, about 15 on Geography and the environment, about 10 on the Indian Economy and about 37 on Physics, Chemistry and Biology, which makes CDS the most science-heavy General Knowledge paper among the major recruitment exams. Polity questions test writs, the NHRC, electoral systems, disqualification of legislators, GST and delimitation. History runs from the Upanishads and the Shunga dynasty to Vijayanagara, temple architecture, the Sylhet referendum and the SNDP Yogam. Geography asks about the atmosphere, earthquakes and tsunamis, Ramsar sites, mangroves and World Heritage sites. Science stays at school level but expects reasoning: a lens problem, a magnetic field direction, molarity versus molality, what cooking soda is, how enzymes act. This page holds GK24's topic-wise GK notes for CDS, written as short facts and tables so that a topic can be revised in one sitting. Read a topic, then solve its previous-year questions and quiz on this site to check what stayed with you.

CDS GK Questions with Answers

Q4041.Environment & EcologyMedium

Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the punishment for an offence relating to an animal listed in Schedule I is imprisonment for a term of:

  1. A.Not less than one year, extending to three years
  2. B.Not less than three years, extending to seven years
  3. C.Up to six months only
  4. D.Not less than seven years, extending to fourteen years
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Not less than three years, extending to seven years

Section 51 of the Act prescribes this enhanced punishment, along with a fine, for offences against animals given the highest protection, and the amendment of 2022 raised the monetary penalties further.

Q4042.Environment & EcologyHard

Parliament enacted the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 by using which Article of the Constitution, since protection of wild animals and birds was then a State subject?

  1. A.Article 249
  2. B.Article 250
  3. C.Article 252
  4. D.Article 253
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Article 252

Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate on a State subject for two or more States when the legislatures of those States pass resolutions asking it to do so, and the law then applies to those States and to any other State that adopts it later.

Q4044.Environment & EcologyHard

The Central Zoo Authority, which recognises and regulates zoos in India, was inserted into the Wild Life (Protection) Act by the amendment of which year?

  1. A.1982
  2. B.1986
  3. C.1991
  4. D.2002
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1991

The amendment of 1991 inserted Chapter IVA into the Act and created the Central Zoo Authority, which lays down standards for housing and upkeep of animals, recognises or derecognises zoos and regulates the exchange of animals between them.

Q4045.Environment & EcologyMedium

Conservation reserves and community reserves were added as new categories of protected areas by which amendment of the Wild Life (Protection) Act?

  1. A.The amendment of 1991
  2. B.The amendment of 2002
  3. C.The amendment of 2006
  4. D.The amendment of 2022
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The amendment of 2002

That amendment inserted Section 36A for conservation reserves, usually declared on government land next to a national park or sanctuary, and Section 36C for community reserves, declared on private or community land where people volunteer to protect wildlife.

Q4046.Environment & EcologyEasy

Who is the chairperson of the National Board for Wild Life?

  1. A.The President of India
  2. B.The Prime Minister of India
  3. C.The Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  4. D.The Chief Wild Life Warden
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Prime Minister of India

The National Board for Wild Life was created by the amendment of 2002 under Section 5A of the Act as the apex advisory body on wildlife, and the Prime Minister chairs it.

Q4048.Environment & EcologyMedium

Under the schedules as restructured in 2022, specified plants are protected under which schedule of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?

  1. A.Schedule I
  2. B.Schedule II
  3. C.Schedule III
  4. D.Schedule IV
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Schedule III

In the restructured Act the plant schedule moved from the old Schedule VI to the new Schedule III, and it still protects a short list of species such as the blue vanda, the pitcher plant and other threatened orchids and cycads, whose uprooting and trade are controlled.

Q4049.Environment & EcologyMedium

After the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, how many schedules does the Act contain?

  1. A.Three
  2. B.Four
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Six
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Four

The amendment of 2022 rationalised the schedules of the parent Act: Schedule I now lists animals given the highest protection, Schedule II lists animals with a lesser degree of protection, Schedule III lists specified plants and Schedule IV lists specimens figuring in the appendices of the Convention on International Trade…

Q4050.Environment & EcologyEasy

The Wild Life (Protection) Act, which banned hunting and gave legal status to national parks and sanctuaries in India, was enacted in which year?

  1. A.1972
  2. B.1980
  3. C.1986
  4. D.1991
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1972

The Wild Life (Protection) Act received the assent of the President on 9 September 1972 and remains the principal wildlife law of the country, covering hunting, protected areas, trade in animal articles and the schedules of protected species.

Q4051.Indian PolityMedium

In which year did the Supreme Court of India strike down the electoral bond scheme as unconstitutional?

  1. A.2017
  2. B.2018
  3. C.2024
  4. D.2021
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2024

A Constitution Bench struck down the electoral bond scheme in February 2024 in the petitions led by the Association for Democratic Reforms, holding that anonymous corporate funding of parties violates the voter's right to information under Article 19(1)(a) and that the amendments permitting unlimited company donations were arbitrary; the Court…

Q4052.Indian PolityHard

What is the security deposit payable by a general candidate contesting an election to the Lok Sabha?

  1. A.Ten thousand rupees
  2. B.Twenty-five thousand rupees
  3. C.Five thousand rupees
  4. D.Fifty thousand rupees
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Twenty-five thousand rupees

Section 34 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 fixes the security deposit for a Lok Sabha candidate at twenty-five thousand rupees, and a candidate belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe pays half of it; the deposit is forfeited if the candidate does not poll more…

Q4053.Indian PolityEasy

National Voters' Day is observed in India on which date, marking the foundation of the Election Commission of India?

  1. A.26 January
  2. B.25 January
  3. C.15 January
  4. D.1 January
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 25 January

The Election Commission of India was constituted on 25 January 1950, a day before the Constitution came into force, and the day has been observed as National Voters' Day since 2011 to enrol young citizens who turn eighteen and to hand them the elector photo identity card.

Q4054.Indian PolityMedium

Electronic voting machines were used for the first time in India in 1982 in an assembly constituency of which state?

  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Karnataka
  3. C.Rajasthan
  4. D.Goa
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Kerala

The machine was used for the first time in 1982 at the Paravur assembly constituency in Kerala, in a by-election and only in a part of the polling stations; the experiment was challenged for want of a statutory basis, Parliament then amended the law in 1989 to permit the machine…

Q4055.Indian PolityHard

Which committee recommended partial state funding of elections in kind to recognised political parties?

  1. A.Tarkunde Committee
  2. B.Dinesh Goswami Committee
  3. C.Indrajit Gupta Committee
  4. D.Vohra Committee
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Indrajit Gupta Committee

This committee reported in 1998 on state funding of elections and recommended that funding be partial, be given in kind rather than as cash, and be confined to recognised national and state parties, with the caution that the state of public finances allowed only a limited beginning.

Q4056.Indian PolityMedium

The None of the Above (NOTA) option was provided on the ballot following the Supreme Court judgment in which case?

  1. A.Kihoto Hollohan versus Zachillhu
  2. B.People's Union for Civil Liberties versus Union of India
  3. C.Sadiq Ali versus Election Commission of India
  4. D.Lily Thomas versus Union of India
Show answer
Correct answer: B. People's Union for Civil Liberties versus Union of India

In this judgment of 2013 the Supreme Court held that the right to reject every candidate is part of the freedom of expression and of the secrecy of the ballot, and it directed the Election Commission to provide a None of the Above button; the Commission used it from the…

Q4057.Indian PolityHard

Reserved election symbols are allotted to recognised political parties under an Order of which year?

  1. A.1951
  2. B.1961
  3. C.1968
  4. D.1989
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1968

The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 was issued by the Election Commission under Article 324 and the Conduct of Elections Rules, and it governs the recognition of national and state parties, the reservation of symbols for them, the list of free symbols for other candidates, and disputes between…

Q4058.Indian PolityMedium

Under which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is a political party registered with the Election Commission of India?

  1. A.Section 29A
  2. B.Section 33A
  3. C.Section 123
  4. D.Section 8
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Section 29A

Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is the provision under which an association or body of individual citizens applies to the Election Commission for registration as a political party, and the application must carry a specific undertaking of true faith and allegiance to the Constitution, to…

Q4059.Indian PolityEasy

The anti-defection law is contained in which Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. A.Ninth Schedule
  2. B.Tenth Schedule
  3. C.Eleventh Schedule
  4. D.Twelfth Schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Tenth Schedule

The Tenth Schedule was added by the Fifty-second Amendment in 1985 and it disqualifies a member of Parliament or of a state legislature who voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket the seat was won, or who votes or abstains against the party direction; the Speaker…

Q4060.Indian PolityMedium

The voting age in India was reduced from twenty-one years to eighteen years by which Constitutional Amendment?

  1. A.Forty-fourth Amendment
  2. B.Fifty-second Amendment
  3. C.Sixty-first Amendment
  4. D.Seventy-third Amendment
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Sixty-first Amendment

The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 amended Article 326 and lowered the qualifying age for a voter from twenty-one to eighteen years, and it took effect in March 1989, so the general election of 1989 was the first in which eighteen-year-olds voted.