State Exams 2022 Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is A, Ministry of Home Affairs. The National Human Rights Commission works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, which is the nodal ministry for human rights in India. The Commission is a statutory body, not a constitutional one, created by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and it began work on 12 October 1993. It is headed by a former Chief Justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court, appointed by the President on the advice of a committee led by the Prime Minister, and it inquires into complaints of violation of human rights or of negligence by a public servant, though its recommendations are advisory. Option B is wrong because the Defence Ministry deals with the armed forces. Option C is wrong because the Finance Ministry handles revenue and expenditure. Option D is wrong because option A is right. Exam tip: NHRC is statutory, from the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993, under the Home Ministry.

The correct answer is B, Lungs. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs in which the alveoli, the tiny air sacs where oxygen passes into the blood, fill with fluid or pus. That is why the patient has cough with phlegm, fever with chills, chest pain and difficulty in breathing, and the oxygen level in the blood can fall. It is caused most often by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, and also by other bacteria, viruses and fungi; it spreads through droplets, and children and the elderly are the worst affected. Vaccines against pneumococcus and influenza give protection. Option A is wrong because the kidney is affected by nephritis and kidney stones. Option C is wrong because the liver is affected by hepatitis, jaundice and cirrhosis. Option D is wrong because the heart is affected by conditions such as rheumatic heart disease and myocarditis. Exam tip: pneumonia and tuberculosis attack the lungs, hepatitis the liver, nephritis the kidney.

The correct answer is C, Graphite. Among the allotropes of carbon, graphite has the lowest standard enthalpy of formation, which is taken as zero, so it is the reference state and the most stable form under ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure. In graphite each carbon atom is sp2 hybridised and bonded to three others in flat hexagonal sheets, and the loose sheets slide over one another, which makes it soft and a good lubricant; the spare electron in each atom makes graphite a conductor of electricity. Option A is wrong because coal is not a pure allotrope but an impure mixture of carbon with hydrogen, sulphur and mineral matter. Option B is wrong because fullerenes such as C60 are strained cage molecules and are less stable than graphite. Option D is wrong because diamond, though the hardest natural substance, is slightly higher in energy and turns to graphite very slowly. Exam tip: graphite most stable and conducts electricity, diamond hardest and does not.

The correct answer is A. Protecting monuments and places of national importance is not a fundamental duty; it is a directive principle under Article 49, which asks the State to protect monuments and objects of artistic or historic interest declared to be of national importance. The fundamental duties sit in Article 51A in Part IV A, added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. They were ten in number and became eleven when the 86th Amendment of 2002 added the duty of a parent to give education to a child between six and fourteen. Option B is a duty under Article 51A(g), on the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife. Option C is a duty under Article 51A(i), which also asks citizens to abjure violence. Option D is a duty under Article 51A(a), respecting the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem. Exam tip: fundamental duties Article 51A, Part IV A, 42nd Amendment 1976, now eleven.

The correct answer is A, Decrease in potential energy. A conservative force is one whose work depends only on the starting and the finishing point, not on the path taken, and whose work around any closed path is zero. Gravity and the spring force are the common examples. Potential energy is defined for such a force by the relation that the work it does equals the loss in potential energy. When a stone falls, gravity does positive work and the stone’s potential energy falls by exactly that amount. Option C is wrong because it states the opposite; potential energy rises only when work is done against the force, as in lifting the stone. Option B is right only when the conservative force is the sole force acting, so it is not the defining statement, and friction or an applied force would break it. Option D is wrong because kinetic energy grows, not falls, when such work is positive. Exam tip: conservative force, work equals minus the change in potential energy, and zero on a closed loop.

The correct answer is B, Painting. Amritlal Vegad, born in Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh in 1928, was a painter and collage artist who trained at Kala Bhavan in Santiniketan under Nandalal Bose, and later taught art in Jabalpur. He is remembered for collages made from torn pieces of coloured paper, and for the sketches and paintings with which he filled his Hindi travel writing on the Narmada, a river he walked along for thousands of kilometres. That is why Madhya Pradesh papers place him with the visual arts rather than the performing arts. Option A is wrong because he worked on flat surfaces in paper and colour, not in stone or metal. Option C is wrong because he was never a singer. Option D is wrong because he had no place in music; that misreading comes from grouping every artist under the performing arts. Exam tip: Vegad, Jabalpur, painting and collage, Narmada travelogues in Hindi.

The correct answer is D, Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu is the first state in India to make rooftop rainwater harvesting structures compulsory for all houses and buildings across the state, through a law brought in 2003. The state depends heavily on the north-east monsoon and on groundwater, and Chennai faced severe water shortages, so collecting roof water and sending it into the ground became a priority. Rooftop harvesting collects rain from roofs and stores it in tanks or uses it to recharge wells and aquifers, which raises the water table. Option A is wrong because Kerala gets heavy rain and has promoted harvesting, but it was not the first to make it compulsory for every house. Option B is wrong because Gujarat is known for check dams and other water works, not for this first law. Option C is wrong because Rajasthan is known for traditional harvesting, such as the tankas of Bikaner and Phalodi, not for the first statewide law. Exam tip: Tamil Nadu was the first state to make rooftop rainwater harvesting compulsory (2003); tankas are Rajasthan's traditional underground tanks.

The correct answer is C, Both I and II. Atomicity is the number of atoms in one molecule of an element, and it is why we write nitrogen gas as N2 and not just N. Nitrogen gas exists as N2, two atoms joined by a strong triple bond, so it is diatomic, like oxygen, hydrogen and chlorine. Sulphur exists as S8, a crown-shaped ring of eight atoms, so it is polyatomic. Phosphorus, as P4, is tetra-atomic, ozone (O3) is triatomic, and noble gases such as helium and argon are monoatomic because they exist as single atoms. These examples are listed in the NCERT Class 9 chapter on atoms and molecules. Option A is wrong because it accepts only the first pair, though the sulphur pair is also right. Option B is wrong because both pairs are correct, so 'neither' cannot be the answer. Option D is wrong because it accepts only the sulphur pair and leaves out nitrogen, which is correctly diatomic. Exam tip: He mono, N2 di, O3 tri, P4 tetra, S8 poly.

The correct answer is D, f-block. The inner transition elements are the lanthanides and actinides, in which electrons fill the f-orbitals, so they form the f-block of the periodic table. They are placed in two separate rows at the bottom of the table so that the table does not become too wide. The lanthanides run from cerium to lutetium and are also called rare earth elements; the actinides run from thorium to lawrencium and are all radioactive. Uranium and plutonium, used in nuclear power, are actinides. Option A is wrong because the d-block holds the transition elements such as iron, copper and zinc, in groups 3 to 12. Option B is wrong because the p-block holds groups 13 to 18, including the halogens and the noble gases. Option C is wrong because the s-block holds groups 1 and 2, the alkali and alkaline earth metals. Exam tip: the d-block has the transition elements; the f-block has the inner transition elements, the lanthanides and actinides.

The correct answer is D, Granite. Granite forms when magma cools slowly deep inside the Earth's crust, so it is an intrusive or plutonic igneous rock. Slow cooling gives the minerals time to grow, which is why granite shows large, clearly visible grains of quartz, feldspar and mica. It is hard and long-lasting, so it is widely used in buildings, monuments and kitchen tops. Option A is wrong because sandstone is a sedimentary rock made of sand grains pressed and cemented together; the Red Fort in Delhi is built of red sandstone. Option B is wrong because slate is a metamorphic rock formed when shale is changed by heat and pressure. Option C is wrong because basalt is an extrusive igneous rock: lava cools quickly on the surface, giving fine grains, and the Deccan Traps are made of basalt. Exam tip: intrusive means it cools inside, slowly, with big crystals (granite); extrusive means it cools outside, fast, with fine grains (basalt).

The correct answer is B, Article 239. Article 239 says every Union Territory is administered by the President, acting through an administrator appointed by him with such designation as he thinks fit. That is why some Union Territories, such as Delhi, Ladakh and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, have a Lieutenant Governor, while others have an Administrator. Article 239 opens Part VIII of the Constitution, which deals with Union Territories. Articles 239A and 239AA, added later, give legislatures to Puducherry and Delhi. Option A is wrong because Article 235 gives the High Court control over subordinate courts. Option C is wrong because Article 233 deals with the appointment of district judges by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. Option D is wrong because Article 234 deals with recruiting persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a state. Exam tip: Part VIII covers Union Territories in Articles 239 to 241, and Article 239AA is the special article for Delhi.

The correct answer is C, Aditya Nath Jha. He became the first Lieutenant Governor of Delhi in 1966 and held the post until January 1972. Before 1966, Delhi was run by a Chief Commissioner. The Delhi Administration Act, 1966 created an elected Metropolitan Council and raised the head of the administration to the rank of Lieutenant Governor. A. N. Jha, an ICS officer, had in fact been Delhi's last Chief Commissioner for a short while before taking up the new post. Today the Lieutenant Governor is the administrator of the National Capital Territory under Article 239AA and is appointed by the President. Option A is wrong because Krishan Chand held the post later, from 1974 to 1978, including the Emergency years. Option B is wrong because Baleshwar Prasad served from 1972 to 1974. Option D is wrong because M. C. Pimputkar came after Jha and served for only a few months in 1972. Exam tip: Delhi had Chief Commissioners until 1966; its first Lieutenant Governor was A. N. Jha.

The correct answer is B, Part-C States. Under the Government of Part C States Act, 1951, Delhi got its own Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers. The first election was held in 1952, and Chaudhary Brahm Prakash became Delhi's first Chief Minister. The 1950 Constitution had sorted the units of India into Part A, B, C and D, and Part C covered small areas once run by Chief Commissioners, such as Delhi, Ajmer and Coorg. This arrangement ended when the States Reorganisation Act made Delhi a Union Territory from 1 November 1956, and its Assembly was abolished. Option A is wrong because Part B States were former princely states or their unions, headed by a Rajpramukh. Option C is wrong because Part D had only one unit, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Option D is wrong because Part A States were the former British provinces such as Bombay and Madras, headed by Governors. Exam tip: Delhi became a Part C State in 1951, a Union Territory in 1956, and an NCT with an Assembly under the 69th Amendment of 1991.

The correct answer is B, All-India War Memorial. India Gate was built as the All-India War Memorial to honour soldiers of the British Indian Army who died in the First World War and in the Third Anglo-Afghan War of 1919. It was designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens, the chief architect of New Delhi. The Duke of Connaught laid its foundation stone in 1921, and it was completed in 1931. The names of thousands of soldiers are carved on its walls. In 1972, after the 1971 war, the Amar Jawan Jyoti was added beneath the arch. Option A is wrong because the Afghan war is only one of the wars it remembers, and that was never its name. Option C is wrong because 'Archway of Delhi' is just a description, not an official name. Option D is wrong because the memorial honours the Indian soldiers of the British Indian Army, not only British soldiers. Exam tip: India Gate = All-India War Memorial, designed by Lutyens, built 1921–1931.

The correct answer is D, Original Jurisdiction. Under Article 131, only the Supreme Court can hear disputes between the Centre and one or more states, between the Centre and some states on one side and other states on the other, and between two or more states. Such a case starts directly in the Supreme Court instead of coming up from a lower court, which is why it is called original jurisdiction; it is also exclusive, because no High Court can hear it. The dispute must involve a question of law or fact on which a legal right depends, and a private citizen cannot file a suit under this Article. Option A is wrong because appellate jurisdiction covers appeals against judgments of the High Courts and lower courts. Option B is wrong because advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 lets the President seek the Court’s opinion. Option C is wrong because the Constitution names no separate constitutional jurisdiction for such disputes; appeals on constitutional questions fall under appellate jurisdiction in Article 132. Exam tip: Article 131 original, Article 32 writs, Article 143 advisory.

The correct answer is D, Satara. Satara was the first state annexed under Lord Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse, in 1848. Under this policy, if the ruler of a dependent state died without a natural male heir, the state lapsed to the East India Company, and an adopted son could not inherit the throne. Dalhousie, Governor-General from 1848 to 1856, used it to take Satara (1848), Jaitpur and Sambalpur (1849), Baghat (1850), Udaipur in Chhattisgarh (1852), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854). The anger it caused among rulers such as Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi fed directly into the revolt of 1857. Option A is wrong because Jaitpur was annexed in 1849, a year after Satara. Option B is wrong because Sambalpur was also taken in 1849. Option C is wrong because Jhansi was annexed in 1853, when the Company refused to recognise the adopted son of Raja Gangadhar Rao. Exam tip: the lapse list runs Satara 1848, Jaitpur and Sambalpur 1849, Jhansi 1853, Nagpur 1854.

The correct answer is B, I-a, II-d, III-b, IV-c. Sairishaka is the old name of Sirsa, a town mentioned in the Mahabharata. Kanaud, also written Kanod, was the earlier name of Mahendragarh; the town got its present name in the 1860s, when Maharaja Narendra Singh of Patiala renamed its fort after his son Mahendra Singh. Kapisthal, meaning the abode of Kapi, or Hanuman, is the ancient name of Kaithal. Panduprastha, the town of the Pandavas, is the old name of Panipat, which tradition counts among the five villages the Pandavas asked for to avoid war; Sonipat was Swarnaprastha. Option A is wrong because it matches Sairishaka with Kaithal and Panduprastha with Sirsa. Option C is wrong because it gives Sairishaka to Mahendragarh and Kanaud to Sirsa. Option D is wrong because it matches Sairishaka with Panipat and Kapisthal with Sirsa. Exam tip: Sirsa = Sairishaka, Mahendragarh = Kanaud, Kaithal = Kapisthal, Panipat = Panduprastha, Sonipat = Swarnaprastha.

The correct answer is A, Black Francolin. The black francolin, known locally as kala teetar, is the state bird of Haryana. It belongs to the pheasant family, and the male is easy to recognise by its black face and breast, white cheek patch and chestnut collar, while the female is mostly brown. It lives in grassland, scrub and farmland with tall crops such as sugarcane, and its loud, repeated call is heard mostly at dawn and dusk. Haryana's other state symbols are the blackbuck as the state animal, the peepal as the state tree and the lotus as the state flower. Option B is wrong because the house sparrow is the state bird of Delhi and Bihar, not Haryana. Option C is wrong because the great egret is a large white wading bird of wetlands and is not Haryana's symbol. Option D is wrong because hummingbirds are found only in the Americas and do not live in India at all. Exam tip: Haryana's symbols are black francolin (bird), blackbuck (animal), peepal (tree) and lotus (flower).

The correct answer is D, Sickle cell anaemia, Haemophilia, Down syndrome. All three are genetic disorders, caused by changes in genes or chromosomes and passed on through birth, not by germs. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disease in which a single change in the haemoglobin gene makes red blood cells sickle-shaped. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder carried on the X chromosome, in which blood does not clot properly; it mostly affects males, and it is called the royal disease because it spread among Queen Victoria's descendants. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, also called trisomy 21. Option A is wrong because AIDS is caused by the HIV virus and is not inherited through genes. Option B is wrong because AIDS and Hepatitis B are viral infections, and most cancers come from mutations acquired during life. Option C is wrong because Hepatitis B is a viral infection, even though haemophilia and colour blindness are genetic. Exam tip: genetic disorders include sickle cell anaemia, haemophilia, colour blindness, thalassaemia and Down syndrome.

The correct answer is C, more than the atmospheric pressure. Air always moves from a region of higher pressure to one of lower pressure, so it flows out of the lungs only when the pressure inside them rises above that of the outside air. During expiration the diaphragm relaxes and moves up into its dome shape, and the intercostal muscles between the ribs relax, so the ribs move down and inward. This reduces the volume of the chest cavity, which raises the pressure in the lungs and pushes the air out. Inspiration is the reverse: the diaphragm contracts and flattens, the chest cavity grows, lung pressure falls below atmospheric pressure and air rushes in. Option A is wrong because when the pressures are equal no air moves; this happens for a moment between breaths. Option B is wrong because lower pressure inside the lungs draws air in, which is inspiration. Option D is wrong because contraction of the diaphragm enlarges the chest and causes inspiration, not expiration. Exam tip: inspiration means the diaphragm contracts and lung pressure falls; expiration means it relaxes and lung pressure rises.