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Rajasthan 2025 Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

GK questions asked in Rajasthan 2025, with answers and explanations.

Previous Year Questions

Q1.Art & CultureAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Hard

Match List I with List II regarding famous painting styles and their painters of Rajasthan and select the correct option:

List I

A. Kishangarh

B. Bikaner

C. Mewar

D. Marwar

List II

(i) Sahibdeen

(ii) Nihalchand

(iii) Ali Raza

(iv) Shivdas

  1. A.A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
  2. B.A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
  3. C.A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
  4. D.A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
Show answer

Correct answer: B. A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

Explanation

The correct answer is B, A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv. Nihalchand was the master painter of Kishangarh in the 18th century under Raja Sawant Singh, the poet-king known as Nagaridas; his 'Bani Thani', with its long nose, arched eyebrows and lotus-shaped eyes, is often called the Mona Lisa of India. Ustad Ali Raza, a painter who came from Delhi, worked at Bikaner in the 17th century under Maharaja Karan Singh, which is why Bikaner painting shows a strong Mughal touch. Sahibdin was the leading painter of Mewar under Maharana Jagat Singh I; his Ragamala of 1628 and his Ramayana paintings shaped the Udaipur style. Shivdas is counted among the painters of the Marwar, or Jodhpur, school. Option A is wrong because it gives Shivdas to Bikaner and Ali Raza to Marwar. Option C is wrong because it gives Shivdas to Mewar and Sahibdin to Marwar. Option D is wrong because it links Sahibdin with Bikaner and Ali Raza with Mewar. Exam tip: Bani Thani–Nihalchand–Kishangarh; Ragamala–Sahibdin–Mewar; Ali Raza–Bikaner; Shivdas–Marwar.

Q2.General ScienceAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Easy

Select the incorrect set of 'the typical Vector - Disease caused - Type of Pathogen'.

  1. A.Aedes - Chikungunya - Bacteria
  2. B.Culex - Lymphatic Filariasis - Parasite
  3. C.Anopheles - Malaria - Parasite
  4. D.Aedes - Dengue - Virus
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Aedes - Chikungunya - Bacteria

Explanation

The correct answer is A, Aedes - Chikungunya - Bacteria. This set is wrong because chikungunya is caused by a virus, the chikungunya virus, and not by bacteria. It is spread by Aedes mosquitoes, the same day-biting mosquitoes that carry dengue and Zika, and it causes high fever with severe joint pain. The name comes from a word in the Makonde language of East Africa meaning 'that which bends up', describing patients bent over with pain. Aedes breeds in clean water stored in coolers, tyres, pots and tanks, which is why dengue and chikungunya cases rise after the monsoon. Option B is a correct set because the Culex mosquito spreads lymphatic filariasis, or elephantiasis, caused by parasitic worms such as Wuchereria bancrofti. Option C is correct because the female Anopheles mosquito spreads malaria, caused by the Plasmodium parasite, a protozoan. Option D is correct because Aedes also spreads dengue, which is caused by the dengue virus. Exam tip: Aedes carries dengue, chikungunya and Zika, all viruses; Anopheles carries malaria; Culex carries filariasis and Japanese encephalitis.

Q3.General ScienceAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Easy

In cataract the natural lens becomes cloudy because of change in which of the following?

  1. A.Protein
  2. B.Carbohydrate
  3. C.Fat
  4. D.Tear glands
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Protein

Explanation

The correct answer is A, Protein. The lens of the eye is made mostly of water and special proteins called crystallins, packed in a very regular order that keeps the lens clear so light can pass straight through to the retina. With age, and faster with diabetes, ultraviolet light, smoking or an injury, these proteins break down and clump together. The clumps scatter light, so the lens turns cloudy and vision becomes blurred, dim and glary. This clouding is a cataract, and it is one of the leading causes of blindness in India. It is treated by a short operation in which the cloudy lens is removed and replaced by an artificial intraocular lens. Option B is wrong because carbohydrate changes are not what clouds the lens, although high blood sugar in diabetes speeds up the protein damage. Option C is wrong because fat does not form the clear structure of the lens. Option D is wrong because the tear glands keep the eye moist and have nothing to do with the lens. Exam tip: cataract = cloudy lens from clumped proteins; glaucoma = raised pressure inside the eye.

Q4.Indian EconomyAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Medium

Which of the following is not associated with financial sector reforms in India initiated after 1991?

  1. A.Capital adequacy
  2. B.Non-performing assets
  3. C.FRBM Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management)
  4. D.SARFAESI Act
Show answer

Correct answer: C. FRBM Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management)

Explanation

The correct answer is C, FRBM Act. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 is a fiscal reform: it binds the Union government to cut its fiscal and revenue deficits and to report on its borrowing. It deals with the government's budget, not with banks and financial markets. Financial sector reforms after 1991 began with the Narasimham Committee on the financial system, which asked for sound banking rules. Banks had to keep capital in proportion to their risky assets, the capital adequacy ratio based on the Basel norms, and to recognise bad loans honestly as non-performing assets (NPAs) instead of hiding them in their books. Option A is wrong because capital adequacy norms were a core banking reform. Option B is wrong because clear rules for NPAs were part of the same reform. Option D is wrong because the SARFAESI Act, 2002 lets banks seize and sell the security of defaulting borrowers without going to court, a major step to recover bad loans. Exam tip: banking reforms = capital adequacy, NPA norms, SARFAESI; FRBM = fiscal discipline of the government.

Q5.GeographyAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Easy

In which district of Rajasthan 'Khadin' is a popular method of water conservation?

  1. A.Nagaur
  2. B.Bikaner
  3. C.Jaisalmer
  4. D.Pali
Show answer

Correct answer: C. Jaisalmer

Explanation

The correct answer is C, Jaisalmer. A khadin is a long earthen embankment built across the lower end of a sloping field, so that rainwater running off the higher rocky ground collects behind it. The water soaks into the soil during the monsoon, and in winter crops such as wheat and gram are grown on the moist bed without any further irrigation, while wells below the bund also get recharged. The system is credited to the Paliwal Brahmins of Jaisalmer, who developed it around the 15th century, and it suits the district's stony, sloping land and very low rainfall. It is one of the best examples of runoff farming in the Thar. Option A is wrong because Nagaur is not the home of the khadin system. Option B is wrong because Bikaner is known for other rainwater structures, such as the kund and the kui. Option D is wrong because Pali, on the eastern side of the Luni basin, is not where khadins developed. Exam tip: khadin, Paliwal Brahmins, Jaisalmer; kund and tanka store rainwater; kui taps seepage water.

Q6.GeographyAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Hard

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I (Tributary)

A. Rapti

B. Tista

C. Hiran

D. Purna

List II (River)

(i) Brahmaputra

(ii) Narmada

(iii) Godavari

(iv) Ghaghra

  1. A.A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
  2. B.A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
  3. C.A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
  4. D.A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
Show answer

Correct answer: D. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

Explanation

The correct answer is D, A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii. The Rapti rises in Nepal, flows past Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh and joins the Ghaghra, which then meets the Ganga. The Tista, or Teesta, rises from glaciers in Sikkim, cuts through the Darjeeling hills and joins the Brahmaputra, known there as the Jamuna, in Bangladesh. The Hiran is a small tributary of the Narmada that joins it from the north in Madhya Pradesh. The Purna rises in the Ajanta hills of Maharashtra and joins the Godavari; do not confuse it with another Purna that joins the Tapi. Option A is wrong because it sends the Tista to the Narmada and the Purna to the Brahmaputra. Option B is wrong because it links the Rapti with the Brahmaputra and the Hiran with the Godavari. Option C is wrong because it makes the Rapti a tributary of the Godavari. Exam tip: Rapti–Ghaghra, Tista–Brahmaputra, Hiran–Narmada, Purna–Godavari, and a second Purna joins the Tapi.

Q7.GeographyAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Medium

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List I (Desert)

A. Gobi

B. Patagonia

C. Victoria

D. Kalahari

List II (Location)

(i) Southern Africa

(ii) Asia

(iii) South America

(iv) Australia

  1. A.A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
  2. B.A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
  3. C.A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
  4. D.A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
Show answer

Correct answer: A. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

Explanation

The correct answer is A, A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i. The Gobi is a cold desert of Asia spread over Mongolia and northern China, and it is famous for its dinosaur fossils. Patagonia lies in southern Argentina in South America; it is a rain-shadow desert, dry because the Andes block the moist westerly winds coming from the Pacific. The Great Victoria Desert is the largest desert of Australia, stretching across Western Australia and South Australia. The Kalahari covers most of Botswana and parts of Namibia and South Africa, in southern Africa. Paper setters like Patagonia because it lies on the eastern side of its continent, while most hot deserts lie on the western margins, next to cold ocean currents. Option B is wrong because it puts the Gobi in Australia and Patagonia in Asia. Option C is wrong because it places Patagonia in southern Africa and the Victoria Desert in South America. Option D is wrong because it gives every desert the wrong continent. Exam tip: Gobi–Asia, Patagonia–South America, Great Victoria–Australia, Kalahari–southern Africa.

Q8.Indian PolityAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Easy

The Central Vigilance Commission was formed on the basis of the recommendations of which of the following committee?

  1. A.Santhanam Committee
  2. B.Kelkar Committee
  3. C.Swaran Singh Committee
  4. D.Bakshi Tek Chand Committee
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Santhanam Committee

Explanation

The correct answer is A, Santhanam Committee. The Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-64), headed by K. Santhanam, recommended a central body to keep watch over honesty in government, and the Central Vigilance Commission was set up in February 1964 by an executive resolution of the Union government. For almost four decades it had no law of its own; the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 made it a statutory, multi-member body with a Central Vigilance Commissioner and up to two Vigilance Commissioners. It is not a constitutional body, which is a common trap in exams. Option B is wrong because the committees headed by Vijay Kelkar dealt with tax reform and public finance. Option C is wrong because the Swaran Singh Committee of 1976 recommended adding Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. Option D is wrong because the Bakshi Tek Chand Committee reviewed the working of the anti-corruption law of 1947 soon after independence; it did not lead to the CVC. Exam tip: Santhanam Committee gave the CVC in 1964; statutory status came in 2003.

Q9.Indian PolityAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Hard

Match List-A with List-B and identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-A (Case)

A. Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain

B. Minerva Mills vs Union of India

C. Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu

D. P. Sambamurthy vs State of A.P.

List-B (Amendment challenged)

i. 42nd Amendment

ii. 52nd Amendment

iii. 39th Amendment

iv. 32nd Amendment

  1. A.A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
  2. B.A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
  3. C.A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
  4. D.A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
Show answer

Correct answer: D. A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

Explanation

The correct answer is D, A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv. Each case tested an amendment against the basic structure of the Constitution. In Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975), the Supreme Court struck down the part of the 39th Amendment that put the Prime Minister's election beyond the courts, holding free and fair elections to be part of the basic structure. In Minerva Mills (1980), it struck down clauses of the 42nd Amendment that gave Parliament unlimited power to amend and let all Directive Principles override the rights in Articles 14 and 19. In Kihoto Hollohan (1992), it upheld the anti-defection law brought by the 52nd Amendment but kept the Speaker's decision open to judicial review. In P. Sambamurthy (1987), it struck down a clause of Article 371D, added by the 32nd Amendment, that let the state government overrule a tribunal. Option A is wrong because it links Raj Narain with the 42nd Amendment. Option B is wrong because it pairs Minerva Mills with the 52nd. Option C is wrong because it pairs Raj Narain with the 32nd. Exam tip: 39th–Raj Narain, 42nd–Minerva, 52nd–Kihoto, 32nd–Sambamurthy.

Q10.Indian PolityAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Medium

Fundamental Rights provided by which of the following groups of Articles are granted only to 'Citizens' of India?

  1. A.Articles 14, 20, 23 and 30
  2. B.Articles 15, 21, 25 and 28
  3. C.Articles 20, 21, 25 and 30
  4. D.Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30
Show answer

Correct answer: D. Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30

Explanation

The correct answer is D, Articles 15, 16, 19 and 30. Only five Fundamental Rights are reserved for Indian citizens. Article 15 bars discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth; Article 16 gives equality of opportunity in public employment; Article 19 gives the six freedoms of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession; Article 29 protects the language, script and culture of minorities; and Article 30 gives minorities the right to set up and run educational institutions. All the other rights, such as equality before law, the right to life and freedom of religion, are available to every person, foreigners included. Option A is wrong because Articles 14, 20 and 23 protect every person, not just citizens. Option B is wrong because Articles 21, 25 and 28 also apply to all persons. Option C is wrong because Articles 20, 21 and 25 are rights of every person, citizen or not. Exam tip: citizens-only rights are 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30.

Q11.Indian HistoryAsked in: Rajasthan · RPSC RAS Pre, 2 Feb 2025Medium

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Bhakti Movement?

  1. A.Vallabhacharya established Pushtimarga.
  2. B.Nimbarka propounded the Philosophy of Dvaitadvait.
  3. C.Madhvacharya propounded Nirguna Bhakti Siddhant instead of Saguna Bhakti.
  4. D.Ramananda advocated Rama Bhakti.
Show answer

Correct answer: C. Madhvacharya propounded Nirguna Bhakti Siddhant instead of Saguna Bhakti.

Explanation

The correct answer is C, the statement about Madhvacharya. It is the wrong statement, because Madhvacharya worshipped a personal god, Vishnu, with form and qualities, so his path was saguna bhakti, not nirguna. Madhva, a 13th-century teacher from Udupi in Karnataka, taught Dvaita, or dualism: God and the soul are always separate, and the soul is freed only through devotion and God's grace. He set up the Krishna temple at Udupi, still the centre of his tradition. Nirguna bhakti, devotion to a formless god, is linked with saints such as Kabir, Nanak and Dadu. Option A is a correct statement because Vallabhacharya founded the Pushtimarga, the 'path of grace', centred on Krishna worshipped as Shrinathji. Option B is correct because Nimbarka taught Dvaitadvaita, dualism with non-dualism. Option D is correct because Ramananda spread Rama bhakti in north India and took disciples from all castes, Kabir and Raidas among them. Exam tip: Shankara Advaita, Ramanuja Vishishtadvaita, Madhva Dvaita, Nimbarka Dvaitadvaita, Vallabha Shuddhadvaita.

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