State Exams Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is C, Thymine. In DNA, adenine always pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds, and guanine pairs with cytosine through three. This is called complementary base pairing, and it is why one strand of DNA can be used to copy the other. The double-helix model was proposed by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953, using X-ray images made by Rosalind Franklin. Adenine and guanine are purines with two rings, while thymine and cytosine are pyrimidines with one ring, so each pair has the same width and the helix stays even. In RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil. Option A is wrong because guanine is a purine like adenine and pairs with cytosine. Option B is wrong because cytosine pairs with guanine through three hydrogen bonds. Option D is wrong because histone is a protein around which DNA is wound in chromosomes; it is not a base at all. Exam tip: A pairs with T by two bonds, G with C by three; RNA has U in place of T.

The correct answer is C, GDP at market price + Net factor income from abroad. GDP counts everything produced within the country's borders, whoever produces it. GNP counts what is produced by the country's own normal residents, wherever they work. So to move from GDP to GNP, we add the income our residents earn abroad and subtract what foreigners earn in India; this net figure is called net factor income from abroad (NFIA). If NFIA is negative, GNP is smaller than GDP. Option A is wrong because GDP at market price minus depreciation gives NDP at market price, not GNP. Option B is wrong because it uses GNP to define itself, and adding subsidies is a step used to move from market price to factor cost, not to find GNP. Option D is wrong because NDP at factor cost plus NFIA gives NNP at factor cost, which is the national income. Exam tip: domestic to national, add NFIA; gross to net, subtract depreciation; market price to factor cost, subtract indirect taxes and add subsidies.

The correct answer is B, M3. M3 is called broad money or aggregate monetary resources. It equals M1 plus the time deposits of the public with banks, so it measures almost all the money available in the economy. The Reserve Bank of India uses four measures, M1 to M4, introduced in 1977, and M3 is the one most often used to track money supply. Liquidity falls as we move from M1 to M4, because time deposits and post office deposits cannot be spent as quickly as cash. Option A is wrong because M2 is M1 plus the savings deposits with post office savings banks. Option C is wrong because M4 is M3 plus total post office deposits, excluding National Savings Certificates. Option D is wrong because M1 is narrow money: currency with the public, demand deposits with banks and other deposits with the RBI. Exam tip: M1 is narrow money and M3 is broad money or aggregate monetary resources; M1 is the most liquid and M4 the least.

The correct answer is B, SBI. The State Bank of India was not part of the 1969 nationalisation because it was already a government-owned bank. It was created on 1 July 1955, when the Imperial Bank of India was taken over under the State Bank of India Act, following the advice of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee. On 19 July 1969, the government of Indira Gandhi nationalised 14 major commercial banks, each with deposits of over ₹50 crore. Six more banks were nationalised in 1980. Option A is wrong because Canara Bank was one of the 14 banks nationalised in 1969. Option C is wrong because UCO Bank, then called United Commercial Bank, was also on the 1969 list. Option D is wrong because Bank of Baroda was likewise nationalised in 1969. Exam tip: Imperial Bank became SBI in 1955; 14 banks were nationalised in 1969 and 6 in 1980; the RBI itself was nationalised in 1949.

The correct answer is B, Puducherry with its units at Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam. Puducherry is the only Union Territory spread over both coasts of India. Puducherry and Karaikal lie on the east coast within Tamil Nadu, Yanam lies on the east coast in Andhra Pradesh, and Mahe lies on the west (Malabar) coast within Kerala. All four were French settlements; they came to India in 1954 and formally became part of India in 1962. Option A is wrong because the Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie only in the Bay of Bengal, on the eastern side. Option C is wrong because Lakshadweep lies only in the Arabian Sea, off the Kerala coast. Option D is wrong because Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu lie only on the western side, near Gujarat and Maharashtra. Exam tip: Puducherry has four districts in three states: Puducherry and Karaikal (Tamil Nadu), Yanam (Andhra Pradesh) and Mahe (Kerala).

The correct answer is A, Central Highlands. The Narmada divides the Peninsular plateau into two parts: the Central Highlands to its north and the Deccan Plateau to its south. The Central Highlands cover a major area of the Malwa plateau, with the Aravalli range to the north-west and the Vindhya range along the south. Rivers here, such as the Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken, flow from south-west to north-east, which shows the slope of the land. The eastward extensions of the Central Highlands are called Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand, and the Chotanagpur plateau lies further east. Option B is wrong because the Western Ghats mark the western edge of the Deccan Plateau, along the Arabian Sea coast. Option C is wrong because the Eastern Ghats form the broken eastern edge of the Deccan Plateau. Option D is wrong because the Deccan Plateau is the triangular landmass that lies south of the Narmada. Exam tip: north of the Narmada lie the Central Highlands; south of it lies the Deccan Plateau.

The correct answer is D, Granite. Granite forms when magma cools slowly deep inside the Earth's crust, so it is an intrusive or plutonic igneous rock. Slow cooling gives the minerals time to grow, which is why granite shows large, clearly visible grains of quartz, feldspar and mica. It is hard and long-lasting, so it is widely used in buildings, monuments and kitchen tops. Option A is wrong because sandstone is a sedimentary rock made of sand grains pressed and cemented together; the Red Fort in Delhi is built of red sandstone. Option B is wrong because slate is a metamorphic rock formed when shale is changed by heat and pressure. Option C is wrong because basalt is an extrusive igneous rock: lava cools quickly on the surface, giving fine grains, and the Deccan Traps are made of basalt. Exam tip: intrusive means it cools inside, slowly, with big crystals (granite); extrusive means it cools outside, fast, with fine grains (basalt).

The correct answer is C, Kali and Teesta. The Himalayas, about 2,400 km long, are divided from west to east into regions marked by river valleys, and the Nepal Himalayas lie between the Kali in the west and the Teesta in the east. This is the highest stretch of the whole range and holds Mount Everest as well as Kanchenjunga on the Nepal–Sikkim border. The Kali forms the border between Uttarakhand and Nepal, and the Teesta flows through Sikkim before entering West Bengal. Option A is wrong because the Sutlej and the Dihang together cover almost the whole range and do not mark any single section. Option B is wrong because the land between the Sutlej and the Kali is the Kumaon Himalayas. Option D is wrong because the land between the Teesta and the Dihang is the Assam Himalayas. West of the Sutlej, up to the Indus, lie the Punjab Himalayas, also called the Kashmir and Himachal Himalayas. Exam tip: Indus–Sutlej Punjab, Sutlej–Kali Kumaon, Kali–Teesta Nepal, Teesta–Dihang Assam.

The correct answer is C, Hindan. The Hindan rises in the Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh, flows south past Ghaziabad and joins the Yamuna near Greater Noida, on its left bank. The Yamuna is the longest tributary of the Ganga; it rises at the Yamunotri glacier and meets the Ganga at Prayagraj. Its left-bank tributaries, such as the Hindan, the Rind and the Sengar, come from the plains between the Yamuna and the Ganga. Its right-bank tributaries come from the south, from the Malwa plateau and Bundelkhand. Option A is wrong because the Chambal, which flows through the ravines of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, joins the Yamuna from the right. Option B is wrong because the Ken, which flows through Panna in Madhya Pradesh, is a right-bank tributary. Option D is wrong because the Betwa, rising near Bhopal, also joins the Yamuna from the right, near Hamirpur. Exam tip: Yamuna right bank: Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken; left bank: Hindan, Rind, Sengar.

The correct answer is C, Exclusive Original. Under Article 131, disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between States, can be heard only by the Supreme Court and by no other court. Such a case starts directly in the Supreme Court, which is why this is called original jurisdiction, and because no High Court can hear it, it is exclusive. The dispute must involve a legal right, not just a political quarrel. Option A is wrong because advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 is the President seeking the Court's opinion on a question of law or fact. Option B is wrong because appellate jurisdiction, under Articles 132 to 134, covers appeals against the judgments of High Courts. Option D is wrong because writ jurisdiction under Article 32 protects Fundamental Rights, and the High Courts share that power under Article 226. Exam tip: Article 131 original, Articles 132–134 appellate, Article 143 advisory, Article 32 writs.

The correct answer is D, Cooperative Societies. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 added Article 43B, a new Directive Principle asking the State to promote the voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of cooperative societies. The same amendment made forming cooperative societies a Fundamental Right by adding these words to Article 19(1)(c), next to associations and unions. It came into force in February 2012. Option A is wrong because maternity relief was already part of the original Directive Principles in Article 42, which speaks of just and humane conditions of work. Option B is wrong because child labour is dealt with by Article 24, a Fundamental Right, and by Article 39; it was not the subject of the 97th Amendment. Option C is wrong because protection of the environment, Article 48A, was added much earlier by the 42nd Amendment of 1976. Exam tip: the 97th Amendment of 2011 put cooperatives in Article 19(1)(c) and Article 43B.

The correct answer is D, Certiorari. Certiorari means 'to be certified' or 'to be informed'. By this writ a higher court orders a lower court or tribunal to send up a case pending before it, or quashes an order it has already passed, when there is lack of jurisdiction, excess of jurisdiction or an error of law. The Supreme Court issues writs under Article 32 and the High Courts under Article 226. Prohibition and certiorari look alike, so note the timing: prohibition stops a case while it is still going on, while certiorari can also cancel a decision already made. Option A is wrong because prohibition only forbids a lower court from going beyond its jurisdiction; it does not transfer the case. Option B is wrong because mandamus, 'we command', orders a public official or body to do a duty it has failed to do. Option C is wrong because quo warranto, 'by what authority', asks a person to show his right to hold a public office. Exam tip: Certiorari = send up or quash; Prohibition = stop; Mandamus = do your duty.

The correct answer is B, Article 239. Article 239 says every Union Territory is administered by the President, acting through an administrator appointed by him with such designation as he thinks fit. That is why some Union Territories, such as Delhi, Ladakh and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, have a Lieutenant Governor, while others have an Administrator. Article 239 opens Part VIII of the Constitution, which deals with Union Territories. Articles 239A and 239AA, added later, give legislatures to Puducherry and Delhi. Option A is wrong because Article 235 gives the High Court control over subordinate courts. Option C is wrong because Article 233 deals with the appointment of district judges by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. Option D is wrong because Article 234 deals with recruiting persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a state. Exam tip: Part VIII covers Union Territories in Articles 239 to 241, and Article 239AA is the special article for Delhi.

The correct answer is D, President of India. Article 239AA(5) of the Constitution says the Chief Minister of Delhi shall be appointed by the President. The other ministers are also appointed by the President, on the advice of the Chief Minister, and they hold office during the pleasure of the President. This is the key difference from a state, where the Governor appoints the Chief Minister under Article 164. Article 239AA was added by the 69th Amendment Act, 1991, which gave Delhi a Legislative Assembly and named it the National Capital Territory. The Council of Ministers in Delhi cannot be larger than 10% of the Assembly's total strength. Option A is wrong because Delhi, being a Union Territory, has no Governor. Option B is wrong because the Lieutenant Governor is the administrator and administers the oath, but does not make the appointment. Option C is wrong because the Prime Minister has no constitutional role in appointing a Chief Minister. Exam tip: a state's Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor (Article 164); Delhi's by the President (Article 239AA).

The correct answer is C, Aditya Nath Jha. He became the first Lieutenant Governor of Delhi in 1966 and held the post until January 1972. Before 1966, Delhi was run by a Chief Commissioner. The Delhi Administration Act, 1966 created an elected Metropolitan Council and raised the head of the administration to the rank of Lieutenant Governor. A. N. Jha, an ICS officer, had in fact been Delhi's last Chief Commissioner for a short while before taking up the new post. Today the Lieutenant Governor is the administrator of the National Capital Territory under Article 239AA and is appointed by the President. Option A is wrong because Krishan Chand held the post later, from 1974 to 1978, including the Emergency years. Option B is wrong because Baleshwar Prasad served from 1972 to 1974. Option D is wrong because M. C. Pimputkar came after Jha and served for only a few months in 1972. Exam tip: Delhi had Chief Commissioners until 1966; its first Lieutenant Governor was A. N. Jha.

The correct answer is B, Part-C States. Under the Government of Part C States Act, 1951, Delhi got its own Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers. The first election was held in 1952, and Chaudhary Brahm Prakash became Delhi's first Chief Minister. The 1950 Constitution had sorted the units of India into Part A, B, C and D, and Part C covered small areas once run by Chief Commissioners, such as Delhi, Ajmer and Coorg. This arrangement ended when the States Reorganisation Act made Delhi a Union Territory from 1 November 1956, and its Assembly was abolished. Option A is wrong because Part B States were former princely states or their unions, headed by a Rajpramukh. Option C is wrong because Part D had only one unit, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Option D is wrong because Part A States were the former British provinces such as Bombay and Madras, headed by Governors. Exam tip: Delhi became a Part C State in 1951, a Union Territory in 1956, and an NCT with an Assembly under the 69th Amendment of 1991.

The correct answer is B, All-India War Memorial. India Gate was built as the All-India War Memorial to honour soldiers of the British Indian Army who died in the First World War and in the Third Anglo-Afghan War of 1919. It was designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens, the chief architect of New Delhi. The Duke of Connaught laid its foundation stone in 1921, and it was completed in 1931. The names of thousands of soldiers are carved on its walls. In 1972, after the 1971 war, the Amar Jawan Jyoti was added beneath the arch. Option A is wrong because the Afghan war is only one of the wars it remembers, and that was never its name. Option C is wrong because 'Archway of Delhi' is just a description, not an official name. Option D is wrong because the memorial honours the Indian soldiers of the British Indian Army, not only British soldiers. Exam tip: India Gate = All-India War Memorial, designed by Lutyens, built 1921–1931.

The correct answer is C, Lal Kot. Lal Kot was built by the Tomara Rajputs before the Delhi Sultanate began. The Tomara king Anangpal is credited with raising this fort in the 11th century, and it is counted as the first of the 'cities of Delhi'. Later the Chauhans under Prithviraj Chauhan enlarged it into Qila Rai Pithora. When Qutbuddin Aibak took Delhi, the Sultans first ruled from here, and the Qutb Minar complex in Mehrauli stands inside this old fort area. Option A is wrong because Siri was built by Alauddin Khalji around 1303 as a garrison city against the Mongols. Option B is wrong because Jahanpanah was built by Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, who walled in the area between Qila Rai Pithora and Siri. Option D is wrong because Tughlakabad was built by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty, in the 1320s. Exam tip: Lal Kot (Tomara) → Siri (Khalji) → Tughlakabad (Ghiyasuddin) → Jahanpanah (Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq).

The correct answer is D, 1928. On 8 and 9 September 1928, young revolutionaries met secretly at the ruins of Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi and renamed the Hindustan Republican Association as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association. Chandrashekhar Azad became its commander, with Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Bhagwati Charan Vohra among the key members. The word 'Socialist' showed that the group now wanted not just freedom but a society free from exploitation. The HRA itself had been founded in 1924 at Kanpur by Sachindranath Sanyal and others, and it had carried out the Kakori train action in 1925. Option A is wrong because 1927 is the year Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqullah Khan and others were hanged in the Kakori case. Option B is wrong because 1930 saw the Chittagong armoury raid, not the birth of the HSRA. Option C is wrong because 1929 is the year Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly. Exam tip: HRA 1924 at Kanpur, HSRA 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi.

The correct answer is B, Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq. He was the Delhi Sultan when Timur invaded India in 1398. Timur, the Turko-Mongol ruler of Samarkand, crossed the Indus, defeated Mahmud Shah's army near Delhi in December 1398 and sacked the city for several days. The Sultan fled to Gujarat, and the Tughluq state never recovered. Timur left his supporter Khizr Khan in charge of Multan, and this link later helped Khizr Khan found the Sayyid dynasty in 1414. Option A is wrong because Nusrat Shah was a rival Tughluq claimant who held Firozabad for a few years; he was not the recognised Sultan at Delhi. Option C is wrong because Nasir-ud-Din Muhammad Shah III, a son of Firuz Shah, ruled earlier, from 1390 to 1394. Option D is wrong because Khizr Khan became the ruler of Delhi only in 1414. Exam tip: Timur's raid of 1398 ended Tughluq power in practice; the Sayyid dynasty began in 1414.