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State Exams GK Questions 2026

Static GK is the largest part of General Studies in every state exam, and most of it is national. Indian polity, history and the national movement, geography of India, the Indian economy and general science appear in the syllabus of UPPSC PCS and PET, BPSC and BSSC, RPSC and RSSB, MPPSC and MPESB, HPSC and HSSC, and DSSSB and Delhi Police. The level changes from exam to exam. PET sets its subjects at NCERT secondary and senior secondary level, BSSC asks matric-level science, and RPSC sets the RAS Prelims at Bachelor's degree standard. This page brings together GK24's topic-wise GK notes tagged for state exams. Each note covers one topic in English and Hindi, as short facts and tables that can be revised in one sitting, and ends with multiple-choice questions and explanations. Start with Polity, History and Geography, then move to the Economy and Science. GK24 does not have state GK sections. As guidance, use these notes for the national part and prepare your state's history, geography, culture, economy and schemes from state board textbooks, the state budget and economic survey, and the commission's past papers. After each note, take its topic quiz and mark what you got wrong.

State Exams GK Questions with Answers

Q4043.Banking & FinanceMedium

What is the stated central aim of the C-DAC and Bank of India partnership?

  1. A.A Quantum Ecosystem for Financial Innovation
  2. B.A new national payments switch
  3. C.A rural branch expansion plan
  4. D.A sovereign gold bond platform
Show answer
Correct answer: A. A Quantum Ecosystem for Financial Innovation

This is the named focus of the partnership, meant to prepare banking systems both for the opportunities that quantum technology brings and for the security problems it creates, which is why the two sides will study quantum-inspired and quantum-safe methods.

Q4044.Banking & FinanceMedium

C-DAC, which signed the quantum banking agreement, is an autonomous society under which ministry?

  1. A.Ministry of Finance
  2. B.Ministry of Science and Technology
  3. C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  4. D.Ministry of Communications
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing is an autonomous scientific society under that ministry, and its Secretary, S. Krishnan, was present when the memorandum with Bank of India was exchanged.

Q4046.Science & TechnologyMedium

Which of the following was NOT named as a research area of the new C-DOT Centre of Excellence?

  1. A.Very large-scale MIMO systems
  2. B.Post-quantum communication
  3. C.Deep-sea mining equipment
  4. D.AI-native communication networks
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Deep-sea mining equipment

The Centre of Excellence at IIT (BHU), Varanasi has been given a brief in communication technology: wireless communications, quantum technologies, cybersecurity and communication systems driven by artificial intelligence, with advanced research in 5G Advanced and 6G technologies, very large-scale Multiple-Input Multiple-Output systems, sensing merged with communication, AI-native networks and devices…

Q4047.Science & TechnologyMedium

C-DOT, which signed the agreement for the new Centre of Excellence, works under which ministry?

  1. A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  2. B.Ministry of Communications
  3. C.Ministry of Education
  4. D.Ministry of Science and Technology
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Ministry of Communications

The Centre for Development of Telematics, or C-DOT, is the research and development centre of the Department of Telecommunications, which is a department of the Ministry of Communications, and it is in that capacity that it signed the agreement for a Centre of Excellence at IIT (BHU), Varanasi.

Q4049.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following pairs : Famous place — Region 1. Bodhgaya — Baghelkhand 2. Khajuraho — Bundelkhand 3. Shirdi — Vidarbha 4. Nasik (Nashik) — Malwa 5. Tirupati — Rayalaseema Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.2, 3, 4 and 5
  3. C.2 and 5 only
  4. D.1, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2 and 5 only

Khajuraho lies in Bundelkhand and Tirupati in Rayalaseema; the other three are placed in the wrong regions. Khajuraho, famous for its Chandela temples and a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is in Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh, in the Bundelkhand region the Chandelas ruled, so pair 2 is correct.

Q4050.Environment & EcologyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IHard

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

  1. A.The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
  2. B.The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
  3. C.The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
  4. D.The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

PAGE was launched in 2013 as a direct response to the call made at the Rio+20 conference of June 2012, whose outcome document, 'The Future We Want', recognised the green economy as a tool for sustainable development and poverty eradication.

Q4051.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2019, GS Paper IMedium

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

  1. A.Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
  2. B.Absence of restraint
  3. C.Opportunity to do whatever one likes
  4. D.Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Opportunity to develop oneself fully

In political theory, and in the spirit of the Indian Constitution, liberty means positive freedom: the conditions and opportunities a person needs to develop their personality fully.

Q4052.Awards & HonoursAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards : 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are incorrect, so all three are 'not correct'. Statement 1 is wrong because in Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1995) the Supreme Court held that the Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not titles within the meaning of Article 18(1), which abolishes titles; they are honours…

Q4054.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IEasy

The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War

  1. A.India should be granted complete independence.
  2. B.India should be partitioned into two before granting independence
  3. C.India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth
  4. D.India should be given Dominion status
Show answer
Correct answer: D. India should be given Dominion status

The Cripps Mission of March 1942 offered India Dominion status after the Second World War, not full independence. Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of Churchill's War Cabinet, came as Japan advanced in South-East Asia.

Q4055.Science & TechnologyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IHard

In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

All three are legally bound to report cyber security incidents to CERT-In, the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team. CERT-In works under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 as the national agency for incident response.

Q4056.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements : 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity. 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle. 3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 3 only

Only statement 3 is correct: long-term irrigation can make farmland saline, while statements 1 and 2 reverse basic facts about soil.

Q4057.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2019, GS Paper IMedium

Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

  1. A.Spices
  2. B.Fresh fruits
  3. C.Pulses
  4. D.Vegetable oils
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Vegetable oils

Edible vegetable oils are India's largest agricultural import by value, and they have stayed at the top since well before this question was set.

Q4058.Art & CultureAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IMedium

With reference to India, the terms 'Halbi, Ho and Kui' pertain to

  1. A.dance forms of Northwest India
  2. B.musical instruments
  3. C.pre-historic cave paintings
  4. D.tribal languages
Show answer
Correct answer: D. tribal languages

Halbi, Ho and Kui are languages spoken by tribal communities of central and eastern India. Halbi is an Indo-Aryan language used by the Halba tribe and as a link language among many tribes of the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh and nearby parts of Odisha and Maharashtra.

Q4059.Environment & EcologyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IHard

With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2

Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, wild animals belong to the government and a protected animal is protected everywhere, but mere fear of danger does not justify killing it.

Q4060.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IMedium

What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

  1. A.Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto
  2. B.Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government
  3. C.Foundation of Muslim League
  4. D.Aurobindo Ghosh's inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government

The Surat split of December 1907 came from a basic difference in method.

GK Questions for sub-exams