SSC Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is USSR. The idea of writing citizens' duties into the Constitution was taken from the Constitution of the former Soviet Union, which listed duties alongside rights. Most democratic constitutions, such as those of the USA, Canada and Australia, contain no such list, which is why the Soviet source is the one to remember. The USSR is also the source of the ideal of social, economic and political justice in the Preamble.

The other countries gave India other features. The USA gave the Fundamental Rights (inspired by its Bill of Rights), judicial review, the impeachment of the President and the removal of Supreme Court judges. Germany's Weimar Constitution gave the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency. Australia gave the Concurrent List, freedom of trade and commerce, and the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. A simple memory pair: rights from the USA, duties from the USSR.

The correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee. In 1976 the government set up a committee under Sardar Swaran Singh to suggest changes to the Constitution. It recommended a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties, arguing that citizens should be conscious of their duties as well as their rights. It suggested eight duties; the 42nd Amendment adopted ten. Some of its ideas were not accepted, such as a duty to pay taxes and penalties for not performing the duties.

The other committees are real but belong to other subjects. The Tarapore Committee was set up by the Reserve Bank of India on capital account convertibility. The Radhakrishnan Committee, the University Education Commission of 1948–49 headed by Dr S. Radhakrishnan, dealt with higher education. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system. A later body on the same subject is also asked: the Justice J.S. Verma Committee (1999) identified the laws that give effect to the Fundamental Duties.

The correct answer is Forty - Second Amendment Act, 1976. Passed during the Emergency on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, the 42nd Amendment inserted Part IVA and Article 51A with ten Fundamental Duties. It made so many changes to the Constitution, including adding "socialist", "secular" and "integrity" to the Preamble, that it is often called the "mini-Constitution".

The other amendments did different things. The 44th Amendment (1978) reversed many of the 42nd's changes, removed the right to property from the Fundamental Rights, and protected Articles 20 and 21 during an emergency. The 47th Amendment (1984) added more land reform laws to the Ninth Schedule. The 52nd Amendment (1985) brought in the anti-defection law through the Tenth Schedule. Remember that the Fundamental Duties have been amended only once since 1976: the 86th Amendment of 2002 added the eleventh duty, on the education of children.

The correct answer is Part IV A. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted a new Part IVA into the Constitution, with a single Article, 51A, that lists the Fundamental Duties of every citizen. It was placed immediately after Part IV, the Directive Principles, because both are non-justiciable: neither can be enforced directly in a court of law.

The other options are the Parts nearby. Part II, Articles 5 to 11, deals with citizenship. Part III, Articles 12 to 35, contains the Fundamental Rights, which is the most common wrong answer because people expect rights and duties to sit together. Part V begins at Article 52 and deals with the Union: the President, the Council of Ministers, Parliament and the Supreme Court. A neat way to remember the sequence: Part III rights, Part IV directives, Part IVA duties. Many critics argued that the duties should have been placed alongside the rights in Part III, but Parliament chose to keep them separate.

The correct answer is A, Badminton. The Sudirman Cup is the world mixed team championship of badminton, organised by the Badminton World Federation (BWF). It was first held in 1989 in Jakarta and is named after Dick Sudirman, the founder of the Badminton Association of Indonesia. Each tie has five matches, men's singles, women's singles, men's doubles, women's doubles and mixed doubles, so a country needs strong men and women players to win. It is held every two years. The other two team trophies of badminton are the Thomas Cup for men and the Uber Cup for women. B is wrong because baseball's top events include the World Series in the United States and the World Baseball Classic. C is wrong because volleyball has the FIVB World Championship and the Volleyball Nations League. D is wrong because basketball's world event is the FIBA World Cup, and the William Jones Cup is another basketball trophy. Exam tip: badminton team trophies, Thomas Cup (men), Uber Cup (women), Sudirman Cup (mixed).

The correct answer is C, Assam. Sattriya was developed in the sattras, the Vaishnavite monasteries of Assam, by the saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th century. He created it as part of his one-act plays called 'Ankia Naat' to spread devotion to Lord Krishna, and for centuries it was performed only by male monks, the bhokots, inside the sattras. The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognised Sattriya as a classical dance of India in the year 2000. It is still closely tied to the sattras of Majuli, the river island in the Brahmaputra. A is wrong because West Bengal is known for folk forms such as the Purulia Chhau, not Sattriya. B is wrong because the monasteries of Arunachal Pradesh, such as Tawang, are Buddhist and have masked dances, not Sattriya. D is wrong because Sikkim's monasteries are also Buddhist and are known for the Cham masked dance. Exam tip: Sattriya, Assam, Srimanta Sankardev, the sattras, and classical status in 2000.

The correct answer is B, Kuchipudi. The dance takes its name from its birthplace, the village of Kuchipudi, earlier called Kuchelapuram, in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. It grew as a dance-drama tradition performed by Brahmin men, and the 17th-century saint Siddhendra Yogi gave it its classic form with the dance-drama 'Bhama Kalapam'. A famous item is the Tarangam, in which the dancer performs on the rim of a brass plate, sometimes with a pot of water on the head. Today it is performed by both women and men as a solo art. A is wrong because Kathakali is from Kerala and is known for its heavy make-up and colourful costumes. C is wrong because Kathak developed in north India, in the courts and temples of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. D is wrong because Mohiniattam is a graceful solo dance performed by women in Kerala. Exam tip: Kuchipudi, Andhra Pradesh, Krishna district, Siddhendra Yogi, and dancing on a brass plate in Tarangam.

The correct answer is A, 1927. The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) was formed in 1927 and was recognised by the International Olympic Committee the same year. Sir Dorabji Tata, who had helped fund India's team at the 1920 Antwerp Olympics, was its first president, and Dr A. G. Noehren was its first secretary. The IOA is India's National Olympic Committee: it sends Indian teams to the Olympics, the Asian Games and the Commonwealth Games, and its headquarters is in New Delhi. A year after it was formed, India won its first Olympic hockey gold at Amsterdam in 1928. B is wrong because by 1934 the IOA had already existed for seven years. C is wrong because 1928 is the year of India's first Olympic hockey gold, not the year the IOA was formed. D is wrong because 1943 is sixteen years too late. Exam tip: IOA 1927 with Dorabji Tata as first president; first hockey gold 1928; SAI 1984.

The correct answer is D, 1984. The Sports Authority of India (SAI) was set up by the Government of India in January 1984 as a registered society under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. It was created to make good use of the stadiums and facilities built for the 1982 Asian Games in New Delhi and to train athletes for international events. Its headquarters is at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in New Delhi, and it runs training centres across the country, including the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports at Patiala. A is wrong because 1982 is the year India hosted the Asian Games in Delhi, which led to SAI's creation two years later. B is wrong because 1983 is remembered for India winning the Cricket World Cup under Kapil Dev. C is wrong because by 1987 SAI had already been working for three years. Exam tip: Asian Games in Delhi 1982, SAI formed 1984, headquarters at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi.

The correct answer is A, Melatonin. The pineal gland, a small pine-cone-shaped gland deep in the brain, secretes melatonin. Melatonin controls the body's day-night rhythm, called the circadian rhythm, and helps regulate sleep. The gland releases more melatonin in darkness and less in bright light, which is why bright screens late at night can disturb sleep. Melatonin also plays a part in the timing of puberty and in seasonal changes in some animals. The French philosopher Descartes once called the pineal gland 'the seat of the soul'. B is wrong because progesterone is made mainly by the ovaries (the corpus luteum) and helps prepare for and maintain pregnancy. C is wrong because epinephrine, or adrenaline, is released by the adrenal medulla and prepares the body for 'fight or flight'. D is wrong because insulin is made by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas and lowers blood sugar. Exam tip: pineal gland, melatonin, sleep; pancreas, insulin; adrenal medulla, adrenaline.

The correct answer is C, Vitamin B1. Thiamin (thiamine) is vitamin B1, a water-soluble vitamin that helps the body turn carbohydrates into energy and keeps the nerves and heart working well. Its deficiency causes beriberi, a disease that weakens the muscles and nerves. It was once common among people who ate mostly polished rice, because polishing removes the thiamin-rich outer layer of the grain. Good sources are whole grains, pulses, nuts and yeast. Being water-soluble, it is not stored in the body for long and must come from the daily diet. A is wrong because vitamin B2 is riboflavin, whose deficiency causes cracks at the corners of the mouth. B is wrong because vitamin B3 is niacin, whose deficiency causes pellagra. D is wrong because vitamin B12 is cobalamin, which contains cobalt, and its deficiency causes pernicious anaemia. Exam tip: B1 thiamin and beriberi; B2 riboflavin; B3 niacin and pellagra; B12 cobalamin and pernicious anaemia.

The correct answer is B, milk of magnesia. Milk of magnesia is a milky white suspension of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)2, in water. It is a mild base, so it neutralises the extra hydrochloric acid in the stomach that causes acidity and heartburn; the reaction gives magnesium chloride and water. In larger doses it draws water into the intestine and works as a laxative. This antacid is a textbook example of neutralisation, where an acid and a base react to form a salt and water. A is wrong because fused magnesia is magnesium oxide melted in an electric arc furnace and used as a heat-resistant material in furnace linings. C is wrong because magnesia alba is a basic magnesium carbonate, a white powder. D is wrong because caustic-calcined magnesia is magnesium oxide made by heating at lower temperatures and used in industry and farming. Exam tip: milk of magnesia is Mg(OH)2, an antacid base that neutralises stomach HCl.

The correct answer is B, 1831. In 1831 the British scientist Michael Faraday showed that a changing magnetic field produces an electric current in a nearby coil. He moved a magnet in and out of a coil of wire and saw a galvanometer needle move, and he also found that switching a current on and off in one coil induced a current in a second coil wound on the same iron ring. This is electromagnetic induction, the working principle of the electric generator (dynamo) and the transformer. The SI unit of capacitance, the farad, is named after him. A is wrong because 1853 is more than twenty years after the discovery. C is wrong because 1820 is the year Hans Christian Oersted found that an electric current produces a magnetic field, the reverse effect. D is wrong because 1875 has no link with this discovery. Exam tip: Oersted 1820, current makes magnetism; Faraday 1831, changing magnetism makes current.

The correct answer is C, Calcium oxychloride. Calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2) is bleaching powder, and the chlorine it releases removes colour from cotton and linen in the textile industry. It is made by passing chlorine gas over dry slaked lime, Ca(OH)2. When it reacts with water or a dilute acid it gives out chlorine, and this chlorine oxidises the colouring matter into colourless substances. Bleaching powder is also used to bleach wood pulp in paper mills and to disinfect drinking water, which is why it smells of chlorine. A is wrong because sodium carbonate is washing soda, used to remove the permanent hardness of water and in making glass. B is wrong because sodium hydrogencarbonate is baking soda, used in cooking and as an antacid. D is wrong because calcium chloride is a drying agent that absorbs moisture, not a bleach. Exam tip: bleaching powder CaOCl2, washing soda Na2CO3·10H2O, baking soda NaHCO3.

The correct answer is B, By increasing the efficiency of the combustion process. When coal, petrol or diesel burn with too little oxygen, the burning is incomplete and gives out carbon monoxide, soot and unburnt hydrocarbons, the worst pollutants from vehicles and power plants. Efficient, complete combustion turns more of the fuel into carbon dioxide and water and also gets more energy from each litre or kilogram, so less fuel has to be burnt. Catalytic converters in vehicles, which change carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides into less harmful gases, and cleaner fuels such as CNG work on the same idea. A is wrong because lowering the burning temperature leads to incomplete combustion and more smoke and carbon monoxide. C is wrong because adding more carbon only means more carbon dioxide and more soot. D is wrong because latent heat is the heat needed to change the state of a substance, such as ice to water, and has nothing to do with pollution from burning. Exam tip: complete combustion gives CO2 and water; incomplete combustion gives carbon monoxide and soot.

The correct answer is D, Impala will die of starvation due to higher population. In this food chain grass is the producer, the impala is the herbivore and the hyena is the predator that keeps the impala population in check. If all hyenas are removed, impalas multiply quickly because nothing hunts them. The larger herd overgrazes the grassland until there is not enough food, and then many impalas starve and their numbers crash. This chain reaction, where removing a top predator upsets every level below it, is called a trophic cascade. It is also why predators such as tigers are protected: they keep an ecosystem in balance. A is wrong because without predators the impala population cannot stay stable; it first rises sharply. B is wrong because the impalas' good time lasts only until the grass runs out. C is wrong because the grassland is the first to suffer, from overgrazing. Exam tip: remove the predator, the prey multiplies, food runs out and the prey starves; only about 10 per cent of energy passes to the next level.

The correct answer is D, Reserve Bank of India. Under Section 22 of the RBI Act, 1934, the Reserve Bank has the sole right to issue banknotes in India. The RBI was set up on 1 April 1935 and nationalised in 1949, and its head office is in Mumbai. It issues notes under the Minimum Reserve System, keeping at least ₹200 crore in gold and foreign assets, of which ₹115 crore must be gold. One small exception is worth remembering: the one-rupee note and all coins are issued by the Government of India through the Ministry of Finance, while the RBI only puts them into circulation. A is wrong because the State Bank of India is the largest commercial bank but cannot print currency. B is wrong because no body called a 'Securities bank' has any power to issue currency in India. C is wrong because the World Bank is an international lender in Washington, D.C., and issues no country's currency. Exam tip: the RBI issues all notes except the one-rupee note, which, like coins, is issued by the Government of India.

The correct answer is B, Seventh Plan. The Seventh Five Year Plan (1985–90), launched under Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, had the slogan 'food, work and productivity'. It aimed to raise food grain production, create jobs and improve productivity, and it laid stress on modern technology. It achieved a growth rate of about 6 per cent against its target of 5 per cent. The Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (1989) for rural employment also came in this period. A is wrong because the Third Plan (1961–66) aimed at a self-reliant economy but failed after the wars of 1962 and 1965 and a severe drought, which led to the plan holidays. C is wrong because the Fourth Plan (1969–74) aimed at 'growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance'. D is wrong because the Sixth Plan (1980–85) focused mainly on removing poverty. Exam tip: Seventh Plan, 1985–90, Rajiv Gandhi, 'food, work and productivity'.

The correct answer is A, Agricultural development. The First Five Year Plan (1951–56) gave top priority to agriculture, irrigation and power, because India faced food shortages after Partition and needed to feed its people first. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru, who chaired the Planning Commission. Big river projects such as Bhakra-Nangal and Hirakud were started in this period. The Plan aimed at a growth rate of 2.1 per cent and achieved about 3.6 per cent, so it is counted as a success. B is wrong because the development of heavy industries was the focus of the Second Plan (1956–61), based on the Mahalanobis model. C is wrong because rapid industrialisation was also the goal of the Second Plan, not the First. D is wrong because privatisation of industries came with the economic reforms of 1991, forty years later. Exam tip: First Plan, agriculture and Harrod-Domar; Second Plan, heavy industry and Mahalanobis.

The correct answer is D, Sambhar. Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan is a saltwater lake, in fact the largest inland salt lake in India, so it is the odd one out. It lies near Jaipur, and its brine has been used to make salt for centuries. It was declared a Ramsar wetland in 1990 and draws flamingos in winter. Most salt lakes in India lie in dry Rajasthan, where evaporation is high and the water does not drain out to the sea. A is wrong because Bhimtal in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand is a freshwater lake. B is wrong because Loktak in Manipur is the largest freshwater lake in north-east India, famous for its floating 'phumdis' and the Keibul Lamjao National Park. C is wrong because Barapani, also called Umiam Lake, near Shillong in Meghalaya, is a freshwater reservoir. Exam tip: Sambhar is India's largest inland salt lake, while Chilika in Odisha is the largest brackish-water lagoon.