SSC 2025 Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is President. Under Article 360(4), while a Financial Emergency is in operation, the President can issue directions for reducing the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the Union, including the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. This is a striking exception, because in normal times a judge's salary cannot be varied to his or her disadvantage after appointment, a protection meant to keep the judiciary independent.

The Prime Minister leads the government that would advise such a step, but the power is given to the President. The Chief Justice has no power to cut judges' salaries; he or she heads the judiciary but does not control its pay. The Finance Commission, set up under Article 280, recommends how tax revenue is shared between the Centre and the States and has no role in an emergency. During a Financial Emergency the Centre can also require State money bills to be reserved for the President's consideration.

The correct answer is Dismiss State government; needs approval within two months. Under Article 356, if the President is satisfied, on the Governor's report or otherwise, that the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution, he or she can take over the functions of the State government, which in practice means dismissing the State's Council of Ministers and suspending or dissolving its Assembly. The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months, by a simple majority, and then lasts six months at a time, up to three years.

The other options mix in other provisions. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85, but never Parliament as a whole, and not under Article 356. A Financial Emergency is Article 360, and it needs the approval of both Houses, not only the Rajya Sabha. Suspending Fundamental Rights is dealt with by Articles 358 and 359, and needs no Supreme Court approval. Since the S.R. Bommai case (1994), a proclamation under Article 356 can be reviewed by the courts.

The correct answer is upto one year. While a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, Parliament can by law extend the normal five-year term of a State Legislative Assembly (Article 172) and of the Lok Sabha (Article 83) by up to one year at a time. There is also an outer limit: the extension cannot continue beyond six months after the proclamation has ceased to operate. During the Emergency of 1975–77 the term of the Fifth Lok Sabha was extended in this way.

The other durations come from elsewhere in the chapter and are meant to confuse. Six months is the period for which an approved emergency lasts, and also the outer limit after an emergency ends. One month is the time within which Parliament must approve a National Emergency. Nine months has no basis. The logic of the rule is that elections may be impossible during a war or rebellion, so the Constitution lets the existing legislatures continue, but only one year at a time and never for long after the crisis has passed.

The correct answer is 1. A Proclamation of National Emergency must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and approved by each of them within one month of its issue; otherwise it ceases to operate. Each House must approve it by a special majority: a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of the members present and voting. The original Constitution allowed two months; the 44th Amendment (1978) cut this to one month and introduced the special majority. Once approved, the emergency lasts six months and can be renewed every six months.

The other options mix up different time limits in the same chapter. Two months, which is not an option here, is the approval period for President's Rule and a Financial Emergency. Six months is how long an approved National Emergency or President's Rule lasts before it must be renewed. Three and nine months have no role at all. A simple way to keep them apart: the most serious emergency, a threat to the nation, gets the shortest leash and the strictest majority.

The correct answer is 44th Amendment act, 1978. The Emergency of June 1975 was declared on the ground of "internal disturbance", a phrase so vague that almost any political unrest could be brought under it. The Janata government's 44th Amendment replaced it with "armed rebellion", a much narrower ground. The same amendment required the Cabinet's written advice for a proclamation, cut the approval period from two months to one, demanded a special majority for approval and let the Lok Sabha end an emergency by a simple majority.

The other options are the amendments around it. The 42nd Amendment (1976), passed during the Emergency, strengthened the Centre and allowed an emergency to be declared for part of the country, but it did not change the grounds. The 43rd Amendment (1977) restored some powers of the courts that the 42nd had taken away. The 41st Amendment (1976) raised the retirement age of members of State Public Service Commissions. When a question mentions "armed rebellion", the answer is always the 44th Amendment.

The correct answer is Seven. When the Supreme Court began in 1950, Article 124(1) provided for a Chief Justice of India and not more than seven other judges, eight in all, "until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number". Parliament has used that power several times as the Court's workload grew: to 11 judges in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978, 26 in 1986, 31 in 2009 and 34 in 2019, and in May 2026 an ordinance raised the sanctioned strength to 38, the Chief Justice and 37 judges.

The wrong options are nearby numbers designed to catch half-remembered facts. Eight is the total including the Chief Justice, which is exactly why it tempts; six and five have no basis. Read the question carefully: "besides the Chief Justice" means the answer excludes the Chief Justice. Note also that the number of judges is fixed by an Act of Parliament, the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, and not by a constitutional amendment, which is why it can be changed relatively easily.

The correct answer is C, 1 and 2 only. Statement 3 is wrong because the Kaleshwaram project is built on the Godavari, not the Krishna. The scheme takes its name from Kaleshwaram in Telangana, near the point where the Pranhita joins the Godavari, and it was inaugurated in June 2019, which makes statement 1 correct. It is described as the world's largest multi-stage, multi-purpose lift irrigation project, so statement 2 is correct: water is raised through a long chain of pump houses, barrages, tunnels, canals and reservoirs to fields that lie far above the river, and it is meant to serve lakhs of hectares in north Telangana as well as drinking water and industry. Option A is wrong and option D is wrong because both accept statement 3 and its Krishna River claim. Option B is wrong because it leaves out the correct statement 2. Exam tip: Kaleshwaram is on the Godavari in Telangana, while Polavaram is on the Godavari in Andhra Pradesh.

The correct answer is 14 days. Under Article 109, a money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. After the Lok Sabha passes it, the bill goes to the Rajya Sabha, which must return it within 14 days from the date of receipt, with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha may accept or reject any of those recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which the Lok Sabha passed it.

So the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a money bill; it can only delay it by two weeks at most. Seven days, one month and twenty days are all wrong figures. Keep the related rules together: whether a bill is a money bill is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, whose certificate is final (Article 110(3)); a money bill needs the President's recommendation to be introduced; and the President cannot return it for reconsideration. A joint sitting is never needed for a money bill.

The correct answer is C, A is true, but R is false. Iron and steel is indeed a heavy industry, but not because of light raw materials.

Industries are classified by the weight of the material they handle. A heavy industry uses bulky, heavy raw materials and turns out bulky products, so iron and steel, which consumes iron ore, coking coal, limestone, dolomite and manganese by the tonne, is the classic example. A light industry uses light raw materials and gives light finished goods, and it is here that cotton, rubber, silk and electronics belong. That is why the reason given is false: cotton and rubber are never the inputs of an iron and steel plant.

A is wrong as a choice because the reason is false. B is wrong for the same reason. D is wrong because the assertion about iron and steel being a heavy industry is perfectly true.

Exam tip: Heavy industry - iron and steel, cement, shipbuilding; light industry - cotton textiles, electronics, rubber goods.

The correct answer is B. Elephanta, on Gharapuri island near Mumbai, is a Shaivite rock-cut group whose panels tell Shiva stories: the Trimurti Sadashiva, Ardhanarishvara, Gangadhara, the marriage of Shiva and Parvati and Shiva as Nataraja. The sculptors cut the figures deep into the rock so that the shifting light of the cave models them in shadow, which is why the site is remembered for sculptural depth rather than for painting or plan.

Option A is wrong because Elephanta has no stupa and is not Buddhist; the Buddhist rock-cut sites of the region are Kanheri, Bhaja, Karle and Ajanta. Option C is wrong because Jain and Vaishnavite images do not dominate here, unlike the Jain caves at Udayagiri or the Ellora group. Option D is wrong because Elephanta is a cave complex cut into a hillside, not a monolith, and it dates from about the sixth century CE, long after the Mauryas.

The correct answer is 6 consecutive months. Article 75(5) says a minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall, at the end of that period, cease to be a minister. So a person can be appointed a minister, or even Prime Minister, without being an MP, but must win a seat in the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha within six months. P.V. Narasimha Rao became Prime Minister in 1991 this way and then won a Lok Sabha by-election.

The other durations are made up, and three months is the most tempting because people half-remember the "three months" in other rules. The same six-month rule applies in the States under Article 164(4): a Chief Minister or State minister who is not a member of the State legislature must become one within six months. The rule lets a government bring in talent from outside politics, but only for a limited time, after which the minister must face the voters or be chosen by a legislature.

The correct answer is Council of Ministers to aid and advise President. Article 74(1) says there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head to aid and advise the President, who shall act in accordance with that advice. The 42nd Amendment (1976) made the advice binding, and the 44th Amendment (1978) allowed the President to send it back once for reconsideration. Article 74(2) adds that no court can inquire whether, and what, advice was given.

The other options describe appointments made under other Articles. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President under Article 124. The Vice-President is not appointed at all; he or she is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament under Article 66. The chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article 280. Article 74 is the foundation of parliamentary government in India: it is the reason the President acts as a constitutional head while real power lies with the Council of Ministers.

The correct answer is Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People. Under Article 67(b), the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all its then members, an "effective majority", and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. The resolution can be moved only in the Rajya Sabha, and only after at least 14 days' notice. Unlike the President's case, no ground for removal is laid down and no formal impeachment is needed.

The first option is wrong because impeachment applies to the President and is carried out by Parliament, not by the President. There is no rule requiring a one-third majority of both Houses. And the President cannot remove the Vice-President on the Prime Minister's advice: the Vice-President is elected and does not hold office at anyone's pleasure. The key point to remember is that the removal must begin in the Rajya Sabha, the House the Vice-President chairs.

The correct answer is 11. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51A, clauses (a) to (j). The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added an eleventh, clause (k), which asks a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his or her child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen. So today there are eleven Fundamental Duties, all in a single Article.

Each wrong option is a number from the same story, which is why it tempts. Eight is the number of duties the Swaran Singh Committee recommended. Ten is the number added in 1976, before the 2002 amendment. Six is the number of Fundamental Rights today, after the right to property was removed in 1978. Keep the sequence in one line: the committee suggested 8, Parliament added 10 in 1976, and the 86th Amendment made it 11 in 2002. Questions often ask "how many were added in 1976" as well, and there the answer is ten.

The correct answer is C, Assam. Sattriya was developed in the sattras, the Vaishnavite monasteries of Assam, by the saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th century. He created it as part of his one-act plays called 'Ankia Naat' to spread devotion to Lord Krishna, and for centuries it was performed only by male monks, the bhokots, inside the sattras. The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognised Sattriya as a classical dance of India in the year 2000. It is still closely tied to the sattras of Majuli, the river island in the Brahmaputra. A is wrong because West Bengal is known for folk forms such as the Purulia Chhau, not Sattriya. B is wrong because the monasteries of Arunachal Pradesh, such as Tawang, are Buddhist and have masked dances, not Sattriya. D is wrong because Sikkim's monasteries are also Buddhist and are known for the Cham masked dance. Exam tip: Sattriya, Assam, Srimanta Sankardev, the sattras, and classical status in 2000.

The correct answer is B, Kuchipudi. The dance takes its name from its birthplace, the village of Kuchipudi, earlier called Kuchelapuram, in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. It grew as a dance-drama tradition performed by Brahmin men, and the 17th-century saint Siddhendra Yogi gave it its classic form with the dance-drama 'Bhama Kalapam'. A famous item is the Tarangam, in which the dancer performs on the rim of a brass plate, sometimes with a pot of water on the head. Today it is performed by both women and men as a solo art. A is wrong because Kathakali is from Kerala and is known for its heavy make-up and colourful costumes. C is wrong because Kathak developed in north India, in the courts and temples of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. D is wrong because Mohiniattam is a graceful solo dance performed by women in Kerala. Exam tip: Kuchipudi, Andhra Pradesh, Krishna district, Siddhendra Yogi, and dancing on a brass plate in Tarangam.

The correct answer is B, milk of magnesia. Milk of magnesia is a milky white suspension of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)2, in water. It is a mild base, so it neutralises the extra hydrochloric acid in the stomach that causes acidity and heartburn; the reaction gives magnesium chloride and water. In larger doses it draws water into the intestine and works as a laxative. This antacid is a textbook example of neutralisation, where an acid and a base react to form a salt and water. A is wrong because fused magnesia is magnesium oxide melted in an electric arc furnace and used as a heat-resistant material in furnace linings. C is wrong because magnesia alba is a basic magnesium carbonate, a white powder. D is wrong because caustic-calcined magnesia is magnesium oxide made by heating at lower temperatures and used in industry and farming. Exam tip: milk of magnesia is Mg(OH)2, an antacid base that neutralises stomach HCl.

The correct answer is B, 1831. In 1831 the British scientist Michael Faraday showed that a changing magnetic field produces an electric current in a nearby coil. He moved a magnet in and out of a coil of wire and saw a galvanometer needle move, and he also found that switching a current on and off in one coil induced a current in a second coil wound on the same iron ring. This is electromagnetic induction, the working principle of the electric generator (dynamo) and the transformer. The SI unit of capacitance, the farad, is named after him. A is wrong because 1853 is more than twenty years after the discovery. C is wrong because 1820 is the year Hans Christian Oersted found that an electric current produces a magnetic field, the reverse effect. D is wrong because 1875 has no link with this discovery. Exam tip: Oersted 1820, current makes magnetism; Faraday 1831, changing magnetism makes current.

The correct answer is C, Calcium oxychloride. Calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2) is bleaching powder, and the chlorine it releases removes colour from cotton and linen in the textile industry. It is made by passing chlorine gas over dry slaked lime, Ca(OH)2. When it reacts with water or a dilute acid it gives out chlorine, and this chlorine oxidises the colouring matter into colourless substances. Bleaching powder is also used to bleach wood pulp in paper mills and to disinfect drinking water, which is why it smells of chlorine. A is wrong because sodium carbonate is washing soda, used to remove the permanent hardness of water and in making glass. B is wrong because sodium hydrogencarbonate is baking soda, used in cooking and as an antacid. D is wrong because calcium chloride is a drying agent that absorbs moisture, not a bleach. Exam tip: bleaching powder CaOCl2, washing soda Na2CO3·10H2O, baking soda NaHCO3.

The correct answer is D, Impala will die of starvation due to higher population. In this food chain grass is the producer, the impala is the herbivore and the hyena is the predator that keeps the impala population in check. If all hyenas are removed, impalas multiply quickly because nothing hunts them. The larger herd overgrazes the grassland until there is not enough food, and then many impalas starve and their numbers crash. This chain reaction, where removing a top predator upsets every level below it, is called a trophic cascade. It is also why predators such as tigers are protected: they keep an ecosystem in balance. A is wrong because without predators the impala population cannot stay stable; it first rises sharply. B is wrong because the impalas' good time lasts only until the grass runs out. C is wrong because the grassland is the first to suffer, from overgrazing. Exam tip: remove the predator, the prey multiplies, food runs out and the prey starves; only about 10 per cent of energy passes to the next level.