State Exams Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is B, To maintain price stability and ensure economic growth. Monetary policy is run by the central bank, the Reserve Bank of India, which controls the supply and the cost of money in the economy. Under the RBI Act, 1934, as amended in 2016, its main goal is to keep prices stable while keeping in mind the objective of growth. In 2016 India adopted flexible inflation targeting, with a CPI inflation target of 4 per cent within a band of 2 to 6 per cent, and a six-member Monetary Policy Committee sets the repo rate. Tools such as the repo rate, the cash reserve ratio and open market operations let the RBI make credit cheaper or dearer. Option A is wrong because raising government expenditure is a fiscal policy step decided through the Budget. Option C is wrong because cutting the fiscal deficit is also a fiscal policy goal of the government. Option D is wrong because managing forex reserves is a supporting task of the RBI, not the main aim of monetary policy. Exam tip: monetary policy means the RBI and the repo rate; fiscal policy means the government, taxes and spending.

The correct answer is A, M. Visvesvaraya. Sir M. Visvesvaraya, the engineer and former Diwan of Mysore, wrote ‘Planned Economy for India’ in 1934, the first book to set out a plan for India’s development. He proposed doubling the national income in ten years by shifting people from farming to industry, which is why he is seen as a pioneer of economic planning in India. His birthday, 15 September, is observed as Engineers’ Day, and he received the Bharat Ratna in 1955. Other plans followed: the Congress set up the National Planning Committee under Jawaharlal Nehru in 1938, and a group of industrialists released the Bombay Plan in 1944. Option B is wrong because J. R. D. Tata was one of the industrialists who signed the Bombay Plan, not the author of this book. Option C is wrong because G. D. Birla was also a signatory of the Bombay Plan. Option D is wrong because Pattabhi Sitaramayya is known for writing a history of the Indian National Congress. Exam tip: Visvesvaraya’s book 1934, National Planning Committee 1938, Bombay Plan and Gandhian Plan 1944, People’s Plan 1945.

The correct answer is B, Dr. C. Rangarajan. The Twelfth Finance Commission, set up in 2002, was headed by Dr. C. Rangarajan, a former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and its award covered the five years 2005–10. The President sets up a Finance Commission every five years under Article 280 to recommend how central taxes are shared between the Centre and the states and how grants-in-aid are given. The Twelfth Commission is remembered for its debt consolidation and relief facility, which gave states relief on central loans only if they passed fiscal responsibility laws. Option A is wrong because A. M. Khusro chaired the Eleventh Finance Commission, for 2000–05. Option C is wrong because Dr. Vijay Kelkar chaired the Thirteenth Finance Commission, for 2010–15. Option D is wrong because Y. V. Reddy chaired the Fourteenth Finance Commission, for 2015–20, which raised the states’ share of central taxes to 42 per cent. Exam tip: 11th Khusro, 12th Rangarajan, 13th Kelkar, 14th Y. V. Reddy, 15th N. K. Singh.

The correct answer is B, 6. On 15 April 1980 the government nationalised six more private banks, each with deposits of over ₹200 crore, which raised the number of nationalised banks to 20. This was the second round; the first and more famous one came on 19 July 1969, when Indira Gandhi’s government took over 14 major banks with deposits of over ₹50 crore. Both times the aim was to take banking to villages, direct credit to farmers and small industry, and end the hold of big business houses over bank lending. The six banks of 1980 were Andhra Bank, Punjab and Sind Bank, New Bank of India, Vijaya Bank, Corporation Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce. Option A is wrong because four is not the size of either round. Option C is wrong because 14 banks were nationalised in 1969, not in 1980. Option D is wrong because 20 was the total after both rounds, not the number taken over in 1980. Exam tip: 14 banks in 1969, 6 banks in 1980, 20 in all.

The correct answer is C, iii iv i ii. Kalahandi in Odisha is known for the large bauxite deposits of the Eastern Ghats; Zawar near Udaipur in Rajasthan is India’s best-known zinc and lead mine, worked since ancient times; Kolar in Karnataka is famous for the Kolar Gold Fields, among the deepest gold mines in the world until they closed in 2001; and Mosabani in the Singhbhum copper belt of Jharkhand is a major copper mining centre. Paper setters like to pair each mineral with one famous place, so learning one landmark site per mineral pays off quickly. Option A is wrong because it gives gold to Kalahandi and bauxite to Kolar. Option B is wrong because it also gives Kalahandi gold instead of bauxite and Kolar bauxite instead of gold. Option D is wrong because it pairs Zawar with copper and Kolar with zinc and lead. Exam tip: Kalahandi bauxite, Zawar zinc and lead, Kolar gold, Mosabani copper.

The correct answer is B, Pacific and Indian Ocean. The Southern Oscillation is a see-saw in air pressure between the tropical eastern Pacific and the Indian Ocean: when pressure is high over one, it is low over the other. Sir Gilbert Walker, head of the India Meteorological Department, identified it in the 1920s while trying to forecast the monsoon, and it is measured by the pressure difference between Tahiti in the Pacific and Darwin in northern Australia. When pressure over the eastern Pacific becomes lower than over the Indian Ocean, El Niño tends to develop and the Indian monsoon often weakens, which is why the two are studied together as ENSO, the El Niño Southern Oscillation. Option A is wrong because the partner of the Pacific in this see-saw is the Indian Ocean, not the Atlantic. Option C is wrong because the Pacific, the key player, is missing from this pair. Option D is wrong because option B describes the pattern correctly. Exam tip: Southern Oscillation, Pacific and Indian Ocean, Tahiti–Darwin pressure, found by Gilbert Walker.

The correct answer is B, Nagaland. In the 2011 Census, Nagaland was the only state whose population actually fell, with a decadal growth rate of about minus 0.6 per cent for 2001–2011, the lowest in India. Experts linked the fall mainly to the correction of an inflated count in 2001, when Nagaland had shown one of the fastest growth rates in the country. For India as a whole, decadal growth was 17.7 per cent, down from 21.5 per cent in 1991–2001, and among states Meghalaya grew the fastest, at about 27.9 per cent. Option A is wrong because Arunachal Pradesh grew by about 26 per cent, well above the national average. Option C is wrong because Madhya Pradesh grew by about 20.3 per cent. Option D is wrong because Punjab grew by about 13.9 per cent, which is low but still positive. Exam tip: Census 2011 decadal growth, lowest Nagaland (negative), highest state Meghalaya, India 17.7 per cent.

The correct answer is C, 3 1 2 4. The Steppes are the temperate grasslands of Eurasia, stretching across Russia, Ukraine and Kazakhstan; the Prairies cover the central plains of the United States and Canada; the Velds are the grassy plateaus of South Africa; and the Downs are the grasslands of south-eastern Australia, famous for sheep rearing and merino wool. All four are temperate grasslands in the interior of continents, where light rainfall, hot summers and cold winters keep trees few and let grass dominate. The Pampas of Argentina and the Canterbury plains of New Zealand belong to the same family, while the Llanos and Campos of South America are tropical grasslands. Option A is wrong because it places the Steppes in South Africa. Option B is wrong because it puts the Steppes in the USA and the Prairies in Australia. Option D is wrong because it sends the Steppes to Australia and the Downs to the USA. Exam tip: Steppes–Russia, Prairies–USA, Velds–South Africa, Downs–Australia, Pampas–Argentina.

The correct answer is C, (ii) (iii) (i) (iv). The Kaveri rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu in Karnataka; the Sabarmati begins in the Aravalli hills of Mewar in Udaipur district of Rajasthan; the Tapti rises near Multai in Betul district, on the Satpura range of Madhya Pradesh; and the Damodar starts on the Chhotanagpur plateau of Jharkhand. An easy way to check: the Tapti and the Narmada are the two big west-flowing rift-valley rivers of central India, while the Damodar, once called the Sorrow of Bengal, is a river of the eastern coal belt. Option A is wrong because it sends the Kaveri to the Satpuras and the Tapti to the Mewar hills. Option B is wrong because it puts the Kaveri in the Mewar hills and the Sabarmati on the Chhotanagpur plateau. Option D is wrong because it links the Kaveri with Chhotanagpur and the Damodar with the Satpuras. Exam tip: Kaveri–Brahmagiri, Sabarmati–Mewar, Tapti–Multai on the Satpuras, Damodar–Chhotanagpur.

The correct answer is C, 371 C – Meghalaya. Article 371C makes special provision for Manipur, not Meghalaya: the President may provide for a committee of the Legislative Assembly made up of members elected from the Hill Areas, and the Governor reports to the President on the administration of those areas. Articles 371 to 371J give such special provisions to twelve states, each added to meet a regional need. Meghalaya has no Article of its own in this series; its tribal areas are run under the Sixth Schedule. Option A is correctly matched because Article 371A protects the religious and social practices, customary law and land ownership of the Nagas of Nagaland. Option B is correctly matched because Article 371B allows a committee of members from the tribal areas in the Assam Assembly. Option D is correctly matched because Article 371D provides for equal opportunities in public jobs and education in Andhra Pradesh, and now covers Telangana as well. Exam tip: 371A Nagaland, 371B Assam, 371C Manipur, 371D Andhra Pradesh.

The correct answer is D, Original Jurisdiction. Under Article 131, only the Supreme Court can hear disputes between the Centre and one or more states, between the Centre and some states on one side and other states on the other, and between two or more states. Such a case starts directly in the Supreme Court instead of coming up from a lower court, which is why it is called original jurisdiction; it is also exclusive, because no High Court can hear it. The dispute must involve a question of law or fact on which a legal right depends, and a private citizen cannot file a suit under this Article. Option A is wrong because appellate jurisdiction covers appeals against judgments of the High Courts and lower courts. Option B is wrong because advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 lets the President seek the Court’s opinion. Option C is wrong because the Constitution names no separate constitutional jurisdiction for such disputes; appeals on constitutional questions fall under appellate jurisdiction in Article 132. Exam tip: Article 131 original, Article 32 writs, Article 143 advisory.

The correct answer is A, Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 capped the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister, at 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha or the state Legislative Assembly. It added clause (1A) to Article 75 for the Union and to Article 164 for the states, and fixed a minimum of 12 ministers in a state. It also barred a member disqualified for defection from holding any ministerial post, and removed the Tenth Schedule exemption for a split by one-third of a party’s members. Option B is wrong because the freeze on seats until the first census after 2026 came through the 84th Amendment of 2001. Option C is wrong because the National Commission for SCs and STs was split into two by the 89th Amendment of 2003. Option D is wrong because option A describes the amendment correctly. Exam tip: 15 per cent ceiling on ministers and a minimum of 12 in a state, both from the 91st Amendment of 2003.

The correct answer is C, Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha. Under Article 199(3), if a question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly is final. The Speaker endorses a certificate on the bill before it goes to the Legislative Council, where there is one, and then to the Governor. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Assembly and only on the Governor’s recommendation, and the Council can hold it back for no more than 14 days. The same rule works at the Centre, where the Lok Sabha Speaker decides under Article 110(3). Option A is wrong because the Chief Minister heads the government but has no role in certifying bills. Option B is wrong because the Governor recommends the introduction of a Money Bill and gives assent to it, but does not decide its nature. Option D is wrong because the Law Minister may advise the government but holds no such power. Exam tip: Money Bill under Article 199 in the states and Article 110 at the Centre; in both, the Speaker’s decision is final.

The correct answer is D, If such amendment seeks to make any change in Article 279-A. Article 279A creates the GST Council, and the 101st Amendment of 2016 added it to the proviso to Article 368(2), so changing it needs a special majority of Parliament plus ratification by at least half of the state legislatures. The same federal list covers the election of the President (Articles 54 and 55), the extent of the executive power of the Union and the states, the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the division of legislative powers and the Seventh Schedule lists, the representation of states in Parliament, and Article 368 itself. The logic is simple: what touches the states needs the consent of the states. Option A is wrong because Article 53, on the executive power of the Union, is not in that list. Option B is wrong because Article 239A, on legislatures for certain Union Territories, can be changed by Parliament alone. Option C is wrong because Article 243A, on the Gram Sabha, also needs no ratification by the states. Exam tip: the GST Council of Article 279A came with the 101st Amendment, and changing it needs state ratification.

The correct answer is C, Man Singh. The Gujari Mahal at the foot of Gwalior Fort was built by Raja Man Singh Tomar, who ruled Gwalior from 1486 to 1516, for his favourite queen Mrignayani. She was a Gujar by birth, and that is how the palace got its name. Today the palace houses the State Archaeological Museum, famous for the graceful Shalbhanjika sculpture from Gyaraspur. Man Singh also built the Man Mandir palace inside the fort and was a great patron of Dhrupad music, so his court is linked with the growth of the Gwalior tradition of singing. Do not confuse him with Raja Man Singh of Amber, the Mughal general of Akbar’s time. Option A is wrong because Akbar’s buildings include Fatehpur Sikri and the Agra Fort, not this palace. Option B is wrong because Shah Jahan built the Taj Mahal and the Red Fort of Delhi. Option D is wrong because the builder is known and is listed in option C. Exam tip: Gujari Mahal, Gwalior, built by Man Singh Tomar for Queen Mrignayani.

The correct answer is B, Bharia. Patalkot is a deep, horseshoe-shaped valley in the Tamia area of Chhindwara district, and most of its villages are home to the Bharia tribe. The valley floor lies more than a thousand feet below the surrounding Satpura plateau, so for a long time the Bharias lived almost cut off from the outside world, depending on the forest for food and herbal medicine. The Bharias of Patalkot are one of the three Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) of Madhya Pradesh, along with the Baiga and the Sahariya. Option A is wrong because the Bhil, the largest tribe of the state, live mainly in western districts such as Jhabua, Alirajpur and Dhar. Option C is wrong because the Khairwar are a separate tribe and not the main community of Patalkot. Option D is wrong because the Oraon belong mainly to the Chhotanagpur region of Jharkhand. Exam tip: Patalkot, Chhindwara, Bharia tribe, one of the three PVTGs of Madhya Pradesh with the Baiga and Sahariya.

The correct answer is C, Mahi. The Mahi rises in the Vindhya hills in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, flows through the Banswara region of Rajasthan and then crosses Gujarat to fall into the Gulf of Khambhat, so it passes through three states. Like the Narmada, the Tapi and the Sabarmati, it is one of the few Indian rivers that flow west into the Arabian Sea. The Mahi is also known for crossing the Tropic of Cancer twice, a favourite fact of paper setters. Option A is wrong because the Ken flows only through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, where it joins the Yamuna. Option B is wrong because the Sonar stays within Madhya Pradesh and joins the Ken. Option D is wrong because the Betwa rises in Raisen district and joins the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh, so it covers only two states. Exam tip: Mahi goes from Dhar through Rajasthan to Gujarat, three states, and crosses the Tropic of Cancer twice.

The correct answer is C, Dr. Vishnudhar Vakankar. Dr. Vishnu Shridhar Wakankar, an archaeologist from Ujjain, spotted the rocks of Bhimbetka in 1957–58 while travelling by train near Bhopal, and then explored the shelters in detail. Bhimbetka lies in Raisen district, about 45 km south of Bhopal, at the southern edge of the Vindhya hills. Its more than 700 rock shelters carry paintings from the Stone Age to the medieval period, showing hunting, dancing and animals, which makes it one of the oldest records of human life in India. UNESCO listed the Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka as a World Heritage Site in 2003. Option A is wrong because H. D. Sankalia is known for excavating sites such as Navdatoli and Nevasa, not for finding Bhimbetka. Option B is wrong because the historian Shyam Sundar Nigam did not discover the site. Option D is wrong because Rajbali Pandey was a historian of ancient India, not the discoverer. Exam tip: Bhimbetka, Raisen district, found by Wakankar in 1957–58, World Heritage Site in 2003.

The correct answer is B, Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909. The Indian Councils Act of 1909, known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, first gave Muslims separate electorates, in which only Muslim voters could elect Muslim members. It followed the Simla Deputation of 1906, when the Aga Khan led Muslim leaders to Lord Minto to ask for separate representation, and the Muslim League was founded the same year. That is why Lord Minto is called the Father of Communal Electorate. The Act also enlarged the legislative councils, and Satyendra Prasanna Sinha became the first Indian on the Viceroy’s Executive Council. Option A is wrong because the 1892 Act only brought indirect elections and let members discuss the budget. Option C is wrong because the 1919 Act widened communal representation to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans; it did not start it. Option D is wrong because the 1935 Act extended it further to the depressed classes, women and labour. Exam tip: separate electorates began in 1909 under Minto and grew in 1919 and 1935.

The correct answer is C, Atharvaveda. The Atharvaveda calls the Sabha and the Samiti the two daughters of Prajapati, which shows that they were seen as two separate popular bodies. The Sabha was a smaller council of elders and nobles that also did judicial work, while the Samiti was a larger assembly of the common people that discussed policy and could even have a say in choosing the king. Both are first named in the Rigveda, but it is the Atharvaveda that sets them apart and says the king needs their support to rule well. Together with the Vidatha and the Gana, they were the tribal assemblies of the Vedic age. Option A is wrong because the Rigveda mentions both bodies but does not present them as twin institutions. Option B is wrong because the Samaveda is a book of chants set to music for rituals. Option D is wrong because the Yajurveda deals with the rules and formulas of sacrifice. Exam tip: Sabha and Samiti, the two daughters of Prajapati, in the Atharvaveda.