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Defence GK Questions 2026

Static GK carries most of the General Knowledge marks in the defence exams, and science carries the largest share of it. In NDA & NA, Physics, Chemistry and General Science are about half of the 400 marks of Part B, and History, the freedom movement and Geography are about 20% each, as per the notice. In the CDS (II) 2026 General Knowledge paper, GK24 counted about 37 science questions, about 20 each on Polity and History, about 15 on Geography and environment and about 10 on the Economy; this count is guidance, not an official break-up. The Army's Agniveer CEE gives 15 of its 50 General Duty questions to General Knowledge and 15 to General Science, which covers cells, the human body, plants and animals and common epidemics. Its GK list names history, culture and geography of India and its neighbours, the Constitution, inventions and discoveries, books and authors, and the Indian Armed Forces. This page holds GK24's topic-wise GK notes and GK questions tagged for NDA, CDS and Agniveer, in English and Hindi: General Science, Indian History, Art and Culture, Indian Polity, Geography, Indian Economy and Static GK. Read one topic at a sitting, then solve its questions and the previous-year questions of your exam to see what stayed with you.

Defence GK Questions with Answers

Q3082.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following statements:

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.

2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.

3. 'Rare earth minerals' are present on seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Licences for deep-sea exploration in international waters are granted by the International Seabed Authority, not by the Global Ocean Commission.

Q3083.Environment & EcologyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IEasy

The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:

  1. A.Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
  2. B.Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
  3. C.Creation of mini forests in urban areas
  4. D.Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Creation of mini forests in urban areas

The Miyawaki method grows dense, fast-growing native forests on small plots of land, which suits crowded cities. The method was developed by the Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki.

Q3084.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2023, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following countries:

1. Bulgaria

2. Czech Republic

3. Hungary

4. Latvia

5. Lithuania

6. Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

  1. A.Only two
  2. B.Only three
  3. C.Only four
  4. D.Only five
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Only two

Of the six countries listed, only Hungary and Romania share a land border with Ukraine. Ukraine has land borders with seven countries: Russia to the east and north-east, Belarus to the north, Poland, Slovakia and Hungary to the west, and Romania and Moldova to the south-west.

Q3085.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2024, GS Paper IMedium

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani

2. Manipuri

3. Nepali

4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.1, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1, 2 and 3

The 71st Amendment of 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. The Eighth Schedule lists the languages recognised by the Constitution.

Q3087.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2019, Paper IMedium

Why was Vasudeo Balwant Phadke known in history ?

  1. A.He led a violent struggle against the British during the revolt of 1857
  2. B.He was a critic of Gandhian struggle
  3. C.He led an armed uprising against the British in the 1870s
  4. D.He was a radical leader of the Indian National Congress
Show answer
Correct answer: C. He led an armed uprising against the British in the 1870s

Phadke raised an armed band in Maharashtra in 1879 to overthrow British rule. Vasudeo Balwant Phadke was a clerk in the Military Finance Department at Pune.

Q3088.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2020, Paper IHard

Which one of the following statements about the religious policies of the Mughal kings is NOT correct ?

  1. A.The tax on pilgrimage was abolished in 1563, and the jizya tax on non-Muslim Subjects was abolished in 1564
  2. B.Akbar issues instructions to his officers to follow the policy of religious toleration
  3. C.Not all Mughal emperors gave grants for the building and maintenance of places of worship
  4. D.Grants were issued for the repair of a number of temples in the reigns of Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb, after they had been destroyed during war
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Not all Mughal emperors gave grants for the building and maintenance of places of worship

In fact all the Mughal emperors gave grants for building and maintaining places of worship, so saying that not all of them did is incorrect.

Q3089.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2023, Paper IMedium

Which among the following is not correct?

  1. A.Legislation on criminal law, barring exceptions, is a subject under the Concurrent List.
  2. B.Bankruptcy and Insolvency are subjects under the Concurrent List.
  3. C.Inter-State trade and commerce is a subject under the State List.
  4. D.Banking is exclusively under the Union List.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Inter-State trade and commerce is a subject under the State List.

Trade and commerce between States is Entry 42 of the Union List, so it is wrong to place it in the State List.

Q3090.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2024, Paper IMedium

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The abolition of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission

2. The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission asked for the Official Secrets Act to be repealed, and the Right to Information Act was passed in 2005.

Q3093.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2019, Paper IMedium

Why did the early nationalists oppose the Council Act of 1892?

  1. A.The number of members of the Imperial Legislative Council was increased
  2. B.The number of members of Provincial Councils was increased
  3. C.The Councils were given the right to discuss the annual budgets
  4. D.The Act did not give the Indians control over the public funds
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The Act did not give the Indians control over the public funds

The councils could discuss the budget but could not vote on it or amend it. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 raised the number of additional members in the Imperial and Provincial Legislative Councils and introduced an indirect, nominated form of election through bodies such as municipalities, district boards and universities.

Q3094.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2020, Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements about sulh-i kul :

1. It means 'absolute peace'

2. It provided for freedom of expression to all religions and schools of thought

3. The ideal of sulh-i kul was implemented through state policies

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.1,2 and 3
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 1,2 and 3

Sulh-i kul, Akbar's ideal of absolute peace, gave every faith freedom of expression and was put into practice through state policy.

Q3095.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2021, Paper IMedium

Which one of the following powers has not been conferred on the President of India?

  1. A.Appointment of Prime Minister
  2. B.To decide at his/her discretion any question regarding disqualification of a Member of the Parliament
  3. C.To grant pardon to a person who has been punished by a court-martial
  4. D.To remove a Judge of the High Court
Show answer
Correct answer: B. To decide at his/her discretion any question regarding disqualification of a Member of the Parliament

Under Article 103 the President decides a question of disqualification of an MP, but must obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act according to it, so there is no discretion.

Q3096.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2023, Paper IMedium

Which among the following statements regarding the powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is not correct?

  1. A.It can issue writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, quo warranto, certiorari, and prohibition.
  2. B.Writs can be issued to enforce any rights conferred by Part-III and for any other purpose.
  3. C.This power can derogate the power conferred on the Supreme Court under Article 32(2).
  4. D.Writ can be issued to any authority under its jurisdiction.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. This power can derogate the power conferred on the Supreme Court under Article 32(2).

Article 226(4) says expressly that the High Court's writ power shall not be in derogation of the power conferred on the Supreme Court by Article 32(2).

Q3098.Static GKAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IEasy

Which one of the following pairs of countries with new names and old names is correctly matched?

New name : Old name

  1. A.Kingdom of eSwatini : Swaziland
  2. B.Malawi : Rhodesia
  3. C.Botswana : Nyasaland
  4. D.Zimbabwe : Ceylon
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Kingdom of eSwatini : Swaziland

In April 2018 King Mswati III renamed Swaziland as the Kingdom of eSwatini, meaning land of the Swazis. eSwatini is a small landlocked kingdom in southern Africa, bordered by South Africa and Mozambique.

Q3099.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2019, Paper IMedium

Which of the following statements about Prarthana Samaj are correct ?

1. Its aim was to reform the Hindu society

2. It was based in Maharashtra

3. It believed in monotheism

4. It had greatly influenced the Brahmo Samaj

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1,2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1,2 and 3

The Prarthana Samaj was a monotheistic Hindu reform body of Maharashtra, but it was influenced by the Brahmo Samaj, not the other way round.

Q3100.Environment & EcologyAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2020, Paper IEasy

Transition zone of varied natural vegetation occupying the boundary between two adjacent and differing plant communities is known as

  1. A.ecological succession
  2. B.ecotone
  3. C.ecological niche
  4. D.climax
Show answer
Correct answer: B. ecotone

An ecotone is the zone of transition where two different communities or ecosystems meet and blend. Examples of ecotones are the belt between forest and grassland, the mangrove zone between land and sea, an estuary where river water meets the ocean, and the margin between a lake and its shore.

GK Questions for sub-exams