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UPSC CAPF GK Questions 2026

Static general knowledge fills most of Paper-I in UPSC CAPF. Of the six areas the CAPF (ACs) 2026 notice lists for General Ability and Intelligence, four are static: General Science; Indian Polity and Economy; History of India; and Indian and World Geography. The notice's wording shows the depth expected. Polity covers the political system and the Constitution of India, social systems, public administration, security issues and human rights with their indicators. Economy covers economic development in India. History covers social, economic and political aspects, including the growth of nationalism and the freedom movement. Geography covers physical, social and economic aspects of India and the world. General Science asks about everyday scientific phenomena and new areas such as Information Technology, Biotechnology and Environmental Science. This page holds GK24's topic-wise GK notes for UPSC CAPF, in English and Hindi, written as short facts and tables so that a topic can be revised in one sitting: Indian Polity, Indian History, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science, Environment and Ecology, Computer, and Art and Culture. The same notes serve Paper-II, whose essay part suggests modern Indian history, the freedom struggle, geography, polity and economy as topics. Read one topic at a time, then solve its quiz and the CAPF previous-year questions on this site to check what you have retained. General Mental Ability, the sixth area, is reasoning and arithmetic, and needs separate practice.

UPSC CAPF GK Questions with Answers

Q2861.Indian PolityMedium

Which of the following can a Governor not do under Article 161 of the Constitution?

  1. A.Remit a sentence of imprisonment
  2. B.Grant a pardon in a case of a death sentence
  3. C.Grant a respite on the ground of pregnancy
  4. D.Commute a sentence of rigorous imprisonment
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Grant a pardon in a case of a death sentence

Article 161 confines the Governor's power to offences against laws on matters to which the state's executive power extends, and it does not extend to pardoning a death sentence, which under Article 72 belongs to the President alone; a Governor also cannot touch a sentence passed by a court martial.

Q2864.Indian PolityHard

The pocket veto in India is associated with which bill and which President?

  1. A.The Hindu Code Bill and Dr Rajendra Prasad
  2. B.The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, 1986, and Zail Singh
  3. C.The PEPSU Appropriation Bill, 1954, and Dr Rajendra Prasad
  4. D.The Parliament Members Salary Bill, 1991, and R. Venkataraman
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, 1986, and Zail Singh

The bill, which would have allowed the interception of postal articles, was neither assented to nor returned by President Zail Singh, who simply kept it pending, and it lapsed; this is the standing Indian illustration of a pocket veto.

Q2865.Indian PolityMedium

Which of the following kinds of veto is not available to the President of India?

  1. A.Absolute veto
  2. B.Qualified veto
  3. C.Suspensive veto
  4. D.Pocket veto
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Qualified veto

A qualified veto is one that the legislature can override only by a special higher majority, such as two-thirds; it belongs to the American President and not to the Indian one, because when the Indian President returns a bill a simple majority in both Houses is enough to compel assent.

Q2866.Indian PolityHard

What is the maximum period for which an ordinance issued by the President can remain in force without being approved by Parliament?

  1. A.Six weeks
  2. B.Three months and six weeks
  3. C.Six months and six weeks
  4. D.One year
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Six months and six weeks

The arithmetic is worth learning. Article 85 requires that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next, so the longest an ordinance can run before Parliament reassembles is six months; Article 123 then allows it six weeks more from…

Q2868.Indian PolityEasy

The power of the President of India to promulgate ordinances is contained in which Article of the Constitution?

  1. A.Article 72
  2. B.Article 111
  3. C.Article 123
  4. D.Article 213
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Article 123

It empowers the President to promulgate an ordinance when Parliament, or either House of it, is not in session and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which make immediate action necessary; such an ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

Q2871.NationalMedium

Who is the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission who led this open hearing?

  1. A.Justice (Dr.) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi
  2. B.Smt. Vijaya Bharathi Sayani
  3. C.Shri Piyush Goyal
  4. D.Justice V. Ramasubramanian
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Justice V. Ramasubramanian

The correct answer is Justice V. Ramasubramanian, the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission, who led the two-day Bihar open hearing and camp sitting at Patna and heard the bonded labour matters on the second day himself.

Q2872.NationalEasy

In which city did the National Human Rights Commission hold its two-day Bihar open hearing and camp sitting?

  1. A.Gaya
  2. B.Darbhanga
  3. C.Patna
  4. D.Muzaffarpur
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Patna

The Commission, led by Chairperson Justice V. Ramasubramanian along with Members Justice (Dr.) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi and Smt. Vijaya Bharathi Sayani, took up more than seventy alleged cases of human rights violation in the presence of the victims and the officers answerable for them, with the State Chief Secretary and…

Q2873.DefenceMedium

How much time has been reserved at proof ranges for proof firing of developmental projects?

  1. A.One day per month
  2. B.Three days per quarter
  3. C.Five days per half-year
  4. D.Ten days per year
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Three days per quarter

The revised procedure keeps this slot free at proof ranges for proof firing of developmental projects sponsored by the Government, including those under iDEX, the Technology Development Fund and the Make route along with other ministry projects, and also for developmental projects that the indigenous defence industry has taken up…

Q2874.DefenceMedium

What has replaced the arbitration provision in the revised Standard Operating Procedure?

  1. A.A Conciliation Agreement Clause
  2. B.A mandatory civil court reference
  3. C.An ombudsman for defence contracts
  4. D.A tribunal under the Ministry of Law
Show answer
Correct answer: A. A Conciliation Agreement Clause

The earlier procedure routed disagreements into arbitration, and the revised version replaces that with a simpler, industry-friendly conciliation clause so that problems faced by domestic manufacturers are settled faster, which the Ministry links to ease of doing business.

Q2875.DefenceEasy

Under the revised SOP approved in October 2026, proof and testing charges have been waived for which category of projects?

  1. A.Only foreign collaboration projects
  2. B.iDEX, TDF, Make and other MoD developmental projects
  3. C.Only projects of ordnance factories
  4. D.Only export orders above a fixed value
Show answer
Correct answer: B. iDEX, TDF, Make and other MoD developmental projects

The waiver of proof and testing charges for this set of projects is the central financial relief in the revised Standard Operating Procedure, and the stated reason is the promotion of self-reliance in defence.

Q2876.Environment & EcologyHard

Where is the Secretariat of CITES located?

  1. A.Nairobi
  2. B.Geneva
  3. C.Gland
  4. D.Washington
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Geneva

The CITES Secretariat is based at Geneva in Switzerland and is administered under the United Nations Environment Programme; it services the Conference of the Parties, maintains the appendices and advises member states on permits and enforcement.

Q2878.Environment & EcologyHard

Which Act of Parliament was amended in 2022 to give the Central Government express power to regulate invasive alien species?

  1. A.The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
  2. B.The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
  3. C.The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
  4. D.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act of 2022 brought the parent Act into line with India obligations under CITES, reorganised its schedules and for the first time inserted an express power allowing the Central Government to regulate or prohibit the import, trade, possession and proliferation of invasive alien species.

Q2880.Environment & EcologyHard

Operation Clean Art, conducted by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau, was aimed at ending the illegal trade in

  1. A.paint brushes made from mongoose hair
  2. B.freshwater turtles
  3. C.shahtoosh shawls
  4. D.red sanders timber
Show answer
Correct answer: A. paint brushes made from mongoose hair

The mongoose is a protected animal under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, yet its hair was being used to make artists brushes, and Operation Clean Art was the Bureau first country-wide operation directed at a single wildlife article, ending with large seizures of brushes and raw hair.