UPSC CAPF (AC) 2026–27: Exam Pattern, Syllabus, Physical Standards, Eligibility, Dates and Preparation

UPSC CAPF at a glance

These facts are as per Examination Notice No. 08/2026-CAPF for the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2026, published by the Union Public Service Commission on 20 February 2026 under the Rules notified by the Ministry of Home Affairs the same day, and the Commission's later press notes and notices. The 2027 dates are from the UPSC Programme of Examinations 2027 issued on 20 May 2026.

Selection process

The notice lays down four stages after the application. Each stage is open only to those who clear the one before it, and admission at every stage stays provisional until eligibility is verified.

1. Online application on upsconline.nic.in through the Universal Registration Number (URN), the Common Application Form and the exam-specific module, where the candidate also gives force preferences. For 2026 the window was 20 February to 12 March 2026 (6:00 PM). An application cannot be withdrawn or corrected after submission.
2. Written Examination, both papers on one day: Paper-I from 10:00 AM to 12:00 noon and Paper-II from 2:00 PM to 5:00 PM. Each paper has its own minimum qualifying marks, fixed by the Commission. Paper-II is evaluated only for candidates who reach the minimum in Paper-I.
3. Detailed application window of 15 days after the written result. Qualified candidates must log in, upload proof of passing the degree and other documents, update force preferences and submit the form. Anyone who does not is kept out of the later stages.
4. Physical Standards Tests and Physical Efficiency Tests (PST/PET), run by a Nodal Authority appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs at centres notified after the written result. Only candidates who meet the physical standards go on to the PET. The PST/PET decides only who reaches the interview; its result is not added to the merit list.
5. Interview/Personality Test of 150 marks, held by the Commission for candidates who qualify in the PST/PET. NCC 'B' or 'C' certificates are a desirable qualification and are considered only at this stage.
6. Medical Standards Tests for candidates who have appeared in the interview, under the Ministry of Home Affairs' Nodal Authority. A candidate declared unfit may appear before a Review Medical Board, preferably the next day. Appeals go to the Ministry's Appellate Authority within 24 hours of the result of the Detailed Medical Examination.
7. Final merit and force allocation. The merit list is drawn on the marks of the Written Examination and the Interview/Personality Test. Forces are allotted on merit position and the preferences given. A candidate who does not meet the medical standards is not appointed.

Ties in the final marks are broken by the written total, then by the Paper-I marks, then by age, the older candidate ranking higher. Representations on questions and the answer key are taken only on the Commission's online portal, in a five-day window from the third day of the exam date to 6:00 PM of the seventh day.

Exam pattern

Written Examination

All questions in Paper-I carry equal marks, so each of the 125 questions in the 2026 paper was worth 2 marks. One-third of the marks of a question is deducted for each wrong answer. Marking more than one answer counts as a wrong answer. A question left blank carries no penalty.

Paper-II in two parts

In the 2026 paper, Question 1 asked for four essays of about 300 words each out of six topics (4 × 20 = 80 marks). The other questions were arguments for and against two statements (40 marks), two reports of about 200 words (20), a précis in one-third of the passage's length (15), a comprehension passage (20) and grammar and usage (25). The essay medium must match the one marked on the Attendance List and the answer book; an essay in another medium gets no credit.

Later stages

General Ability syllabus

The notice says the objective questions of Paper-I will broadly cover six areas. Their scope, as the notice words it:

• General Mental Ability: logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude including numerical ability, and data interpretation.
• General Science: general awareness, scientific temper, and comprehension and appreciation of scientific phenomena of everyday observation, including new areas like Information Technology, Biotechnology and Environmental Science.
• Current Events of National and International Importance: culture, music, arts, literature, sports, governance, societal and developmental issues, industry, business, globalisation and interplay among nations.
• Indian Polity and Economy: the country's political system and the Constitution of India, social systems and public administration, economic development in India, regional and international security issues, and human rights including its indicators.
• History of India: its social, economic and political aspects, including the growth of nationalism and the freedom movement.
• Indian and World Geography: the physical, social and economic aspects of geography of India and the world.

Guidance (GK24, not the notice): five of the six areas are general knowledge, and GK24's sections map to them as below.

Security and human rights are named in both the Paper-I syllabus and the Paper-II essay topics. Give them more time than you would for a general exam: internal security, border management, the CAPFs themselves and human rights institutions.

Physical standards and efficiency tests

The standards below are from Appendix-I and Appendix-V of the 2026 notice. Candidates first take the Physical Standards Tests; only those who meet them run the PET.

Physical standards (minimum)

Height and chest are measured correct to one decimal of a centimetre, so 164.9 cm fails a 165 cm minimum. Weight must also fit the height-and-age chart in Appendix-V(B) of the notice.

Physical Efficiency Tests

In the long jump, touching the starting line or the finishing line with any part of the body means disqualification in the event. A woman candidate gives a self-declaration of pregnancy status at the PST/PET. If she is found pregnant, she is declared temporarily unfit, her vacancy is kept reserved and she is re-tested six weeks after confinement. She still takes the interview on schedule.

Medical standards (main points)

The notice also rules out knock knees, flat foot, varicose veins, hernia, stammering, deafness, chronic skin disease, and chronic conditions such as TB, arthritis, high blood pressure, diabetes, bronchial asthma and heart disease. The medical result is either Fit or Unfit.

Eligibility and age limit

All conditions are as on 1 August 2026, the date the 2026 notice uses.

• Nationality: a citizen of India. The Rules do not bar a subject of Nepal or Bhutan.
• Sex: men and women are both eligible for the post of Assistant Commandant.
• Education: a Bachelor's degree of a university set up by a Central or State Act, an institution established by an Act of Parliament or a deemed university, or an equivalent qualification. Final-year students may apply, but must upload proof of passing in the 15-day window after the written result.
• Physical and medical standards: as in Appendix-V of the notice, set out above.
• Earlier selection: a candidate already finally selected as Assistant Commandant in a participating force through an earlier exam cannot appear again.

Age limit

A candidate must have turned 20 and must not have turned 25 on 1 August 2026. In other words, he or she must be born not earlier than 2 August 2001 and not later than 1 August 2006.

SC, ST and OBC candidates who are also Central Government servants or Ex-servicemen get both relaxations together. The notice allows no other relaxation. The date of birth is taken from the Matriculation, Secondary School or Higher Secondary certificate, and once entered it is never changed.

Important dates

The written result of 25 August 2026 lists 1,614 roll numbers as qualified for the PST/PET. The Sashastra Seema Bal will give the date, time and venue on its recruitment website and by e-mail, and will issue the e-Admit Cards. Candidates must bring that e-Admit Card, a printed copy of the finally submitted detailed application form and photo identity proof.

CAPF (ACs) Examination, 2027

The calendar says these dates may change if circumstances warrant. The 2027 notice will fix the age window and other conditions for that cycle.

How to prepare General Studies and current events for UPSC CAPF

Paper-I rewards breadth and Paper-II rewards writing, and the same reading feeds both. A plan in five steps:

1. Build static GK first. Read the GK24 GK notes for UPSC CAPF topic by topic: Indian Polity, modern history and the freedom movement, Geography, Indian Economy and General Science. Revise each topic at least twice.
2. Read current affairs daily. GK24 publishes daily current affairs in English and Hindi from official releases. Cover the 12 months before the written exam; for 4 July 2027, that means from about July 2026. Keep defence, internal security, border and human rights items in a separate note, because they serve both papers.
3. Solve previous-year questions. The UPSC CAPF previous-year questions on GK24, and the papers the Commission puts up after each exam, show the level expected in each area.
4. Take timed quizzes. Practise GK24 quizzes against the clock and skip what you do not know, because every wrong answer in Paper-I costs one-third of the question's marks.
5. Write every week for Paper-II. Write one 300-word essay, one for-and-against answer and one précis each week, on issues from your current affairs notes. Part-B carries 120 marks in English, so start grammar and précis practice early.

Keep General Mental Ability practice going alongside. Start training for the PET events early too, because they come after the written result and must be cleared on the day.

Forces and pay

The CAPF (ACs) Examination recruits Assistant Commandants, a Group A post, in five forces. The 2026 notice gives these tentative vacancies.

The number of vacancies may change. Reservation follows Government policy, and 10% of the vacancies are earmarked for Ex-servicemen. A force is allotted on the candidate's position in the merit list and the force preferences given in the application, which can be updated in the window after the written result.

The 2026 notice does not state the pay scale or allowances of an Assistant Commandant, so GK24 does not quote a figure here. For pay, rely on the offer of appointment or the recruiting force's own notification.