SSC CHSL GK Questions 2026

The correct answer is A, vitamin B1. Beriberi is caused by a lack of thiamine, which is vitamin B1. Thiamine helps the body turn carbohydrates into energy and keeps nerves and the heart working, so its shortage weakens muscles and nerves (dry beriberi) or causes swelling and heart failure (wet beriberi). The disease was common in Asia among people living mainly on polished white rice, because milling strips away the thiamine-rich outer layer of the grain; whole grains, pulses, nuts and eggs supply it. Vitamin B1 is water-soluble, so the body stores little of it and needs a regular intake. B is wrong because vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness and xerophthalmia. C is wrong because vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy, with bleeding gums. D is wrong because vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Exam tip: B1 beriberi, B3 pellagra, B12 pernicious anaemia, C scurvy, D rickets.

The correct answer is C, AB+. A person with AB positive blood can receive red cells from every ABO and Rh group, so AB+ is called the universal recipient. The reason is simple: AB+ red cells carry the A antigen, the B antigen and the Rh (D) antigen, so the plasma has no anti-A, anti-B or anti-Rh antibodies to attack donated blood. The opposite case is O negative, whose red cells have none of these antigens, which makes O− the universal donor. Karl Landsteiner discovered the ABO groups in 1900 and received the Nobel Prize in 1930. A is wrong because O+ plasma has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, so it accepts only O blood. B is wrong because A+ has anti-B antibodies and cannot take B or AB blood. D is wrong because B+ has anti-A antibodies and cannot take A or AB blood. Exam tip: AB+ receives from all, O− gives to all.

The correct answer is C, Lord Chelmsford. Chelmsford was Viceroy from 1916 to 1921, and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre happened on 13 April 1919, the day of Baisakhi, in Amritsar. A peaceful crowd protesting the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal was fired upon on the orders of General Dyer, with Michael O'Dwyer as Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab. Rabindranath Tagore returned his knighthood in protest, and the Hunter Commission was set up to inquire into the firing. The Montagu–Chelmsford reforms of the same year and the Government of India Act 1919 are also from his term. A is wrong because Lord Irwin (1926–31) is linked with the Simon Commission boycott, the Dandi March and the Gandhi–Irwin Pact. B is wrong because Dalhousie (1848–56) was a Governor-General famous for the Doctrine of Lapse. D is wrong because Ripon (1880–84) is remembered for local self-government and the Ilbert Bill. Exam tip: 1919 means Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh and Montagu–Chelmsford reforms, all under Chelmsford.

The correct answer is D, air pollution. Lichens are used as bio-indicators of air quality because they are extremely sensitive to sulphur dioxide and other gases in the air. A lichen is a partnership of a fungus and an alga (or cyanobacterium) living together; it has no roots and takes water and minerals straight from the air, so pollutants build up in it quickly. That is why lichens grow well on trees and rocks in clean hill areas but disappear from the centres of polluted cities, and scientists map their presence to judge how clean the air is. A is wrong because gas pollution is not a separate category; the gases concerned are part of air pollution. B is wrong because water pollution is judged with indicators such as coliform bacteria, BOD and algal blooms. C is wrong because soil pollution is tracked through earthworms and soil tests, not lichens. Exam tip: lichen equals sulphur dioxide equals air pollution indicator.

The correct answer is A, The Hague. The International Court of Justice sits in the Peace Palace at The Hague in the Netherlands. The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, set up in 1945 by the UN Charter, and it settles legal disputes between countries and gives advisory opinions to UN bodies. It has 15 judges elected for nine-year terms by the General Assembly and the Security Council, and it is the only one of the six principal UN organs that is not based in New York. Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India is one of its judges. B is wrong because Paris hosts UNESCO, not the court. C is wrong because Washington D.C. is home to the IMF and the World Bank. D is wrong because New York houses the UN headquarters, the General Assembly and the Security Council. Exam tip: ICJ at The Hague, UNESCO in Paris, IMF and World Bank in Washington, UN headquarters in New York.

The correct answer is D, Zoji La. Zoji La is the pass on the Srinagar–Leh highway (NH 1) that joins the Kashmir valley with Dras and Ladakh. It sits at about 3,528 metres in the Great Himalayan range and stays snowbound for months every winter, which is why the Zojila tunnel is being built to keep Ladakh connected all year. Kargil and Dras lie just beyond it, so the pass mattered a great deal during the 1999 Kargil conflict. A is wrong because Nathu La is in Sikkim on the border with Tibet (China) and is used for the Kailash Mansarovar route and border trade. B is wrong because Bara-lacha La is in Himachal Pradesh on the Manali–Leh road, not the Srinagar road. C is wrong because Jelep La is also a Sikkim–Tibet pass, close to Nathu La. Exam tip: Srinagar–Leh means Zoji La; Manali–Leh means Rohtang and Bara-lacha La; Sikkim means Nathu La and Jelep La.

The correct answer is G. Kishan Reddy, the Union Minister of Coal and Mines, who was the Chief Guest at the function. This question is hard precisely because every option names a person who was actually present, so each must be tied to the right role. Dr Sukanta Majumdar, the Minister of State for Education and for the Development of the North Eastern Region, graced the occasion as the Special Guest, which is a different designation from Chief Guest. Hansraj Ahir, former Chairman of the National Commission for Backward Classes, presided over the ceremony rather than attending as its guest. Former Chief Justice B. R. Gavai was present on the occasion but is not described as holding either of the guest roles. Reading the roles carefully is the whole skill being tested here, and the same care pays off in questions about any award ceremony.

The correct answer is the Sansad Ratna Awards 2026. The release states that the award was presented during the sixteenth edition of the Sansad Ratna Awards, held at the Dr Ambedkar International Centre in the national capital, and it adds that the jury of the Sansad Ratna Awards Committee recognised the service of the Commission to the nation and to the cause of social justice. The same committee, along with the Prime Point Foundation, also nominated him for the honour. The other three names in the options have been built to sound like plausible award ceremonies, but none of them appears in the release. Candidates should carry the surrounding details as well, since questions are often framed around them: the Chief Guest was Union Minister of Coal and Mines G. Kishan Reddy, and former Chief Justice B. R. Gavai was present on the occasion.

The correct answer is the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. The release identifies Kishor Makwana as the Chairman of the NCSC and says the award recognises his dedicated service to that Commission and his contribution to advancing social justice, adding that the Commission has strengthened its role in safeguarding the constitutional rights of the Scheduled Castes under his leadership. Option A is the sharpest distractor, because the National Commission for Backward Classes does appear in the release, but in a different role: the ceremony was presided over by Hansraj Ahir, a former Chairman of that Commission. Option C and option D are national bodies that a candidate may confuse with the right one, yet neither is mentioned here. It is worth fixing the pairing in memory as a set, namely the recipient, the Commission he heads, and the award named after the former President of India.

The correct answer is the National Overseas Scholarship Scheme. The release says that to strengthen the authenticity of documents and prevent fraudulent claims, a system for verifying income and caste certificates on the spot, directly with the authorities that issued them, was introduced under this scheme from the academic year 2024-25, and that the measure helps ensure the benefit reaches genuine candidates aspiring to study abroad. Each of the other options is a real scheme named in the same release but carries a different reform, so they must be kept apart. SHRESHTA is where the entrance test was advanced from May to December. The National Fellowship for SC Students is where a mandatory seven-day grievance window was introduced from the academic year 2025-26, following the declaration of the UGC-NET and Joint CSIR-UGC NET results. The Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme is where the disbursement figures come from.

The correct answer is from May to December. Under the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas, the annual examination schedule of the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA has been advanced from May to December. The purpose given in the release is practical: an earlier test lets counselling and admission be completed in time, keeps the process aligned with the academic calendar, and reduces both delay and the number of students who drop out while waiting. Option D reverses the two months and is the classic trap in questions of this kind, so read the direction of the change carefully; the test now happens earlier in the cycle, not later. Options A and C name months that do not appear in the release at all. Candidates should also note the full form of SHRESHTA, since examiners ask for it as often as they ask for the reform itself.

The correct answer is Rs 12,773 crore. The release states that more than 1.44 crore Scheduled Caste students have benefited under the Pre-Matric and Post-Matric Scholarship Schemes and that scholarships amounting to Rs 12,773 crore have been disbursed to support their education. Option A is the most dangerous distractor because that amount does appear in the release, but it belongs to a different group: more than 1.01 crore students of the Other Backward Classes and the Economically Backward Classes received assistance of Rs 2,445.05 crore under the same pre-matric and post-matric schemes. The two pairs should be memorised together as pairs, so that the beneficiary count and the amount are never separated. Options B and D are figures close enough to the correct one to catch a candidate working from a hazy memory, but neither appears in the release.

The correct answer is the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The release states that the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 were notified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, and that they provide the framework for safeguarding consumers against unfair trade practices in the e-commerce sector; the amendment of 2026 strengthens that same framework. The other three statutes are real laws that a candidate may associate loosely with online business, but none of them is named in this release, and attributing the rules to them would be wrong. The chain worth memorising runs in one line: the Act of 2019 is the parent, the Rules of 2020 sit under it, the Amendment Rules of 2026 modify those rules, and the whole package takes effect from the first day of 2027. Also remember that the administering authority named here is the Department of Consumer Affairs.

The correct answer is 30 days. The amended rules provide that where a price reduction is announced, both the reduced price and the prior price shall be displayed, and they define the prior price as the lowest price at which the goods or services were offered during the thirty days preceding the announcement. The point of the provision is to stop the familiar trick of quietly raising a price and then advertising a discount from the inflated figure, because the reference point is now the lowest price in a fixed window rather than a figure of the seller choosing. The other options are periods that do not appear in the release. Candidates should tie this provision to the neighbouring ones in the same list, namely the ban on manipulating search results in a way that misleads users and the requirement that sponsored listings be identified through clear and prominent disclosures.

The correct answer is 1 January 2027. The release says in its headline points, and repeats at the very end, that the new rules shall come into force from January 1, 2027, which gives e-commerce entities a clear runway before compliance becomes mandatory. The three wrong options are all dates that sound administratively plausible, and this is precisely the trap: a candidate who remembers only that the amendment was made in 2026 may assume it applies at once, and pick the October date. It is worth separating the two years cleanly in memory. The amending instrument is titled the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026, because that is the year it was made, but the date of commencement falls in the following year. The rules it amends are the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020, which were notified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

The correct answer is 50. Listing the achievements of the cooperation period that has just ended, the release records the launch in 2024 of the ASEAN-India Fellowship for Higher Education in Agriculture and Allied Sciences, which provides for 50 master’s fellowships over five years for students from ASEAN member states. The other options are numbers that fit the shape of such a scheme but are not supported by the release, and a candidate who guesses will very likely pick one of them. Two further details from the same list are worth carrying into the examination hall alongside this figure: the ASEAN-India Millets Festivals were held at Jakarta and New Delhi in 2023 to promote dietary diversification, nutrition and climate-resilient crops, and the joint leaders statement on strengthening food security and nutrition in response to crises also belongs to this period of cooperation.

The correct answer is 2026-2030. The meeting looked forward to the adoption and implementation of the medium-term plan of action for cooperation in agriculture and forestry for 2026-2030, and the release sets out its four mutually reinforcing areas, namely policy dialogue with food security, trade, investment and resilient value chains; institutional networking, information exchange and digital innovation; capacity building, technology cooperation and joint research and development; and human-resource development with farmer exchanges and inclusive rural enterprise. Option A, 2021-2025, is the period of the plan that was being closed out, and the release praises the progress made under it, so it describes the past and not the future. Option C and option D are periods that do not appear anywhere in the release and have been placed here only to test whether the candidate has memorised the exact span. Note also that the same years, 2026-2030, cover the ASEAN sectoral plan for food, agriculture and forestry welcomed at this meeting.

The correct answer is New Delhi. The release opens by saying that the Ninth ASEAN-India Ministerial Meeting on Agriculture and Forestry was held on 9 September 2026 in New Delhi, India, and it closes with the ministers thanking the Government of India for the hospitality and the arrangements made for the meeting, which confirms India as the host. Option A, Jakarta, is a trap for the hurried reader, because Jakarta does appear in the release, but only as one of the two cities where the ASEAN-India Millets Festivals were held in 2023, the other being New Delhi. Option B, Manila, is not named anywhere; the Philippines is mentioned because the co-chair from the ASEAN side was its Agriculture Secretary, not because the meeting was held there. Option D, Bangkok, does not figure in the release at all. Candidates should link the ninth edition firmly with New Delhi and the tenth edition with the year 2028.

The correct answer is 2047. The President said the country is moving ahead with the national goal of building a developed India by that year, a hundred years after independence, and described what such a country would look like: quality education and healthcare reaching everyone, science and technology used for human welfare, equality of opportunity, full use of the potential of women and youth, and a life of dignity for every citizen. She added that universities and young people have an important role in reaching these goals. Options A, B and C name earlier years that are sometimes attached to other national targets, such as energy or climate commitments, but the Viksit Bharat goal is fixed to the centenary year of independence. Candidates should attach the year firmly to the phrase, because it recurs in scheme and speech questions alike.

The correct answer is Vadodara, in Gujarat. The President attended the 75th annual convocation of the Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda in that city, and the university takes its name from the ruler of the former princely state of Baroda, which is the older name of Vadodara itself. That link between the two names is what the question is really testing. Option A, Ahmedabad, option B, Surat, and option D, Rajkot, are other major cities of Gujarat, and each is home to universities of its own, but none of them hosts this institution. The President noted that the university has spent 75 years bringing several streams of knowledge together and said higher education institutions must remain alert and dynamic in that direction as the country works towards the goal of a developed India.