RRB NTPC 2025 Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is D, Advocate General. Article 165 of the Constitution says the Governor shall appoint a person qualified to be a judge of a High Court as the Advocate General of the state, and he is the highest law officer of the state, the counterpart of the Attorney General at the Centre. He advises the state government on legal matters, appears for the state in the High Court and the Supreme Court, and has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of the state legislature, though he cannot vote in it. He holds office during the pleasure of the Governor, and the Constitution fixes neither his term nor his salary. Option A is wrong because legal adviser is a loose description and not a constitutional post. Option B is wrong because the Attorney General, under Article 76, is the highest law officer of the Union. Option C is wrong because the Law Secretary is a civil servant heading a department. Exam tip: Article 76 Attorney General for the Union, Article 165 Advocate General for a state.

The correct answer is A, province. In the Gupta and post-Gupta period the empire was divided into bhuktis, which were provinces, and inscriptions call the governor of a bhukti an uparika or uparika-maharaja, usually a prince or a trusted noble. A bhukti was split into vishayas, or districts, each under a vishayapati, and below them came the vithi and then the village, where the gramika and the village elders worked. Some records call the same unit a desha or a rashtra. The Gupta habit of granting land and whole villages to brahmins and officers slowly turned these charges into hereditary holdings, a step towards the feudal pattern of early medieval India. Option B is wrong because the land tax of the period was bhaga or bhoga, not bhukti. Option C is wrong because the officer in charge was the uparika, while bhukti was the territory he held. Option D is wrong because a king was called raja or maharajadhiraja. Exam tip: bhukti province, vishaya district, vithi sub-division, grama village.

The correct answer is B, 1.5055 × 10²³. One mole of any gas occupies 22.4 litres at STP, so 5.6 litres is 5.6 divided by 22.4, that is one quarter of a mole. A mole contains 6.022 × 10²³ particles, the Avogadro number, so a quarter of a mole of oxygen contains 6.022 × 10²³ divided by four, which works out to 1.5055 × 10²³ molecules. Note that the question asks for molecules; since oxygen is diatomic, the number of atoms would be twice this figure. Option A is wrong because 6.022 × 10²³ is the count for a full mole, that is for 22.4 litres. Option C is wrong because 2.24 × 10²³ comes from confusing the molar volume 22.4 with the particle count. Option D is wrong because 3.011 × 10²³ is half a mole, which would be 11.2 litres. Exam tip: at STP, 22.4 litres equals one mole equals 6.022 × 10²³ molecules, so divide the given volume by 22.4 first.

The correct answer is A, Land transfers. The Fifth Schedule lets the Governor make regulations for the peace and good government of a Scheduled Area, and it names three matters such a regulation may cover: it may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes, regulate the allotment of land to them, and regulate money-lending to them. The purpose is to stop outsiders from buying up tribal land, so land alienation is the heart of the provision. A regulation of this kind needs the assent of the President, and the Governor must also report to the President every year on the administration of these areas, advised by a Tribes Advisory Council. Option B is wrong because taxation is settled by Parliament and the state legislature, not by such a regulation. Option C is wrong because freedom of speech is a fundamental right no Governor's regulation can curtail. Option D is wrong because water use is not one of the three listed matters. Exam tip: Fifth Schedule regulations cover land transfer, land allotment and money-lending.

The correct answer is D, 301. A 301 reply means Moved Permanently: the page now lives at a new address and the browser or search engine should use that address from now on. HTTP status codes come in classes. Codes in the 200s mean success, the 300s mean redirection, the 400s mean the client made a mistake and the 500s mean the server failed. Because 301 is permanent, browsers remember it and search engines pass the old page's standing to the new address, which is why a website uses 301 when a web address changes for good. Option A is wrong because 500 is Internal Server Error, a fault on the server side. Option B is wrong because 302 is Found, a temporary redirect, so clients keep asking the old address. Option C is wrong because 404 is Not Found, which means no page exists at that address at all. Exam tip: 301 permanent redirect, 302 temporary redirect, 404 not found, 500 server error.

The correct answer is A, complete combustion of fuel. When enough air reaches the burner, every carbon atom of the fuel is oxidised fully to carbon dioxide and the flame is blue and hot, giving the maximum heat for the gas consumed. Option B is wrong because ordinary air contains nitrogen and oxygen with only traces of hydrogen, and the colour of the flame has nothing to do with hydrogen in the atmosphere. Option C is wrong because hazardous combustion is not a chemical term at all and describes nothing; the danger in a burner lies in incomplete burning, which releases poisonous carbon monoxide. Option D is wrong because insufficient oxygen produces the opposite result, a yellow sooty flame in which unburnt carbon particles glow, and the remedy is to clean the air holes of the burner so that more air is drawn in.

The correct answer is A, 57 to 79. In the SDG India Index 2023-24, the fourth edition brought out by NITI Aayog in July 2024, the states' composite scores ran from 57 at the bottom to 79 at the top, with Uttarakhand and Kerala sharing the highest score of 79 and Bihar the lowest at 57. The index scores every state and union territory out of 100 on the seventeen Sustainable Development Goals, and a score of 100 would mean the 2030 targets are fully met. India's own composite score in that edition rose to 71 from 66 two years earlier. Options B, C and D are wrong because each moves one or both ends of the band: 85 and 90 are above the best state's score, and 52 is below the lowest, so no state falls there. Exam tip: SDG India Index 2023-24 — India 71, states 57 to 79, toppers Uttarakhand and Kerala, published by NITI Aayog.

The correct answer is A, 100. The Smart Cities Mission was launched on 25 June 2015 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs for 100 cities, chosen through a two-stage City Challenge competition in which states nominated cities and the cities then sent in their own proposals. Each selected city set up a Special Purpose Vehicle to carry out the work, and the funding was shared between the Centre and the state. The same day of June 2015 also saw the launch of AMRUT and of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban), so the three urban missions are often asked together. Option B is wrong because 50 is not the mission's figure; the first list announced in January 2016 named 20 cities. Option C is wrong because 200 exceeds the sanctioned number. Option D is wrong because 150 belongs to no stage of the mission. Exam tip: Smart Cities Mission — 25 June 2015, 100 cities, first 20 named in January 2016.

The correct answer is A, Non-compoundable criminal offences. A Lok Adalat works by bringing the two sides to a settlement, so it can only handle matters the parties are free to compromise. Section 19(5) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 therefore keeps out any offence that is not compoundable under law, such as murder or rape, because no private agreement can wipe out a serious crime against society. Its award is treated as a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against it, which is why consent matters so much. Option B is wrong because compensation disputes arising from land acquisition are regularly settled in Lok Adalats. Option C is wrong because motor accident claims are among the commonest cases there. Option D is wrong because a divorce by mutual consent is exactly the kind of agreed settlement a Lok Adalat can record. Exam tip: Lok Adalat — statutory status 1987, award final with no appeal, no court fee, non-compoundable offences excluded.

The correct answer is C, Western Ghats. Tropical evergreen forests need more than 200 cm of annual rainfall with a short dry season, and in India the western slopes of the Western Ghats get exactly that from the south-west monsoon. Such forests also grow in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, in Assam and along the upper Assam hills. Because there is no season without moisture, the trees shed leaves at different times and the forest never looks bare; it is layered, dense and hard to walk through, with rosewood, mahogany, ebony and aini among its trees. Option A is wrong because Punjab, with low rainfall and heavy cultivation, carries only thorn and scrub vegetation. Option B is wrong because the Sunderbans is tidal or mangrove forest of the delta, dominated by the salt-tolerant sundari tree. Option D is wrong because Rajasthan's dry climate supports desert thorn forest such as khejri and cactus. Exam tip: evergreen needs rainfall above 200 cm — Western Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar, north-east India.

The correct answer is D, Privy Council in London. Till 1949 the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council, sitting in London, was the highest court of appeal for cases arising in British India. Appeals went up from the provincial high courts, and later from the Federal Court, to these judges in England. The Government of India Act, 1935 set up the Federal Court of India at Delhi in 1937, but even its decisions could be carried further to the Privy Council. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 cut that link, and the Supreme Court of India began work on 28 January 1950. Option A is wrong because the Federal Court stood below the Privy Council and worked only from 1937 to 1950. Option B is wrong because the House of Commons is a law-making chamber of the British Parliament, not a court. Option C is wrong because the Supreme Court set up at Calcutta in 1774 under the Regulating Act served only that Presidency town. Exam tip: Federal Court 1937 → Privy Council appeals ended 1949 → Supreme Court of India 28 January 1950.

The correct answer is The State Governor. Under Article 217(1), every judge of a High Court is appointed by the President by warrant under his or her hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State and, for any judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of that High Court. In practice, since the Judges cases, recommendations come through the collegium system, but the Governor remains one of the constitutional consultees.

The other options have no role in the process. District magistrates are executive officers of the State government. Members of the State Legislature do not take part in judicial appointments, which keeps the judiciary independent of legislative politics. The Union Cabinet advises the President in general, but the Constitution does not name it as a consultee for judicial appointments. The State connection continues after appointment too: the Governor, or a person appointed by the Governor, administers the oath to a High Court judge under Article 219.

The correct answer is B, to measure the vertical temperature profile of the lunar regolith. ChaSTE was carried on the Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-3. It has a probe fitted with a set of temperature sensors, which was pushed into the lunar soil to a depth of about ten centimetres near the south polar region. From its readings scientists can see how heat moves through the top layer of the Moon, which tells them about the thermal properties of the soil at a place never measured before.

Option A, the geological composition, was the task of the two instruments on the Pragyan rover, which used alpha particles and a laser to find the elements in the soil. Option C is wrong because the Moon has only an extremely thin envelope of gas rather than an atmosphere with measurable pressure of the usual kind. Option D, the magnetic field, was not the aim of ChaSTE; the lander instead carried instruments to record moonquakes and to study the plasma near the surface.

The correct answer is D, the operating system will return an error indicating that the directory is not empty. The plain remove-directory command is built to delete an empty folder only. In Windows it is rmdir, also written rd, and in Linux it is rmdir; both stop with a message such as "The directory is not empty" when anything is still inside. To remove a folder along with everything in it you have to ask for it: rmdir /s in Windows or rm -r in Linux, which walks through the tree, deletes the contents and then the folder. This guard exists so that a single short command cannot wipe out a large tree by mistake. Option A is wrong because nothing inside is touched without the recursive switch. Option B is wrong because a file system cannot leave files with no parent folder; the entries go together or not at all. Option C is wrong because the plain command does not ask item by item, which is what an interactive option like rm -i does. Exam tip: rmdir empties only, rm -r for the whole tree.

The correct answer is 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. The word "Cabinet" did not appear anywhere in the original Constitution, which speaks only of the Council of Ministers. After the Emergency of 1975, which was proclaimed on the Prime Minister's advice alone, with the Cabinet told only the next morning, the 44th Amendment laid down that the President can proclaim a National Emergency under Article 352 only when the decision of the Union Cabinet is communicated in writing. That is how the word entered the Constitution, in Article 352(3), and it remains the only Article that uses it.

The 42nd Amendment (1976), passed during the Emergency, is the tempting wrong answer, but it strengthened the Centre and did not mention the Cabinet. The 43rd Amendment (1977) restored some powers of the courts that the 42nd had curtailed, and the 45th Amendment (1980) extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The same 44th Amendment also replaced "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" as a ground for emergency.

The correct answer is President of India. Article 75(4) says that before a minister enters office, the President shall administer to him or her the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out in the Third Schedule. The oath of office is a promise to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution and to discharge duties faithfully; the oath of secrecy is a promise not to reveal matters that come before the minister, except as required by duty.

The Chief Justice of India administers the oath to the President, not to ministers. The Prime Minister, though the head of the government, does not swear in colleagues; the Prime Minister takes the oath from the President too. The Vice-President takes his or her own oath before the President and has no role in swearing in ministers. At the State level the pattern repeats: the Governor administers the oaths to the Chief Minister and the State ministers.

The correct answer is Article 52, which says simply: "There shall be a President of India." It opens Chapter I of Part V, the chapter on the Union executive, and every other rule about the office builds on it.

The other options are the Articles around it, which is why they are chosen to confuse. Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President and makes the President the Supreme Commander of the defence forces; it describes what the office does, not that it exists. Article 74 provides the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. Article 75 deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers. A quick way to hold the sequence: 52 creates the office, 53 gives it the executive power, 54 and 55 say how the President is elected, and 74 and 75 bring in the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.

The correct answer is C, To manage hardware and software resources. An operating system is the system software that loads when a laptop starts and then runs the machine: it shares out memory, decides which program gets the processor and for how long, keeps files and folders in order on the disk, talks to the keyboard, screen and printer through device drivers, and gives the user an interface. Every other program, from a word processor to a game, runs on top of it and asks it for whatever it needs. Windows, macOS, Linux, Ubuntu and Android are common examples. A is wrong because typing documents is the work of an application such as MS-Word. B is wrong because a browser is only one of many programs the operating system supports, not its purpose. D is wrong because video editing is done by application software such as a video editor. Exam tip: an operating system is system software and works as the bridge between the user, the applications and the hardware.

The correct answer is B, Dhammapada. The Dhammapada gathers the Buddha's teaching into 423 short verses arranged in 26 chapters, and because it holds the heart of the doctrine in verses anyone can remember, it is often called the Gita of Buddhism. It is written in Pali and belongs to the Khuddaka Nikaya, one of the five nikayas of the Sutta Pitaka. Its chapters deal with the mind, anger, craving, the wise and the fool, and the path to nirvana. A is wrong because Mahayana Sutra is not one book but a whole class of later Sanskrit texts. C is wrong because the Vamsatthappakasini is a Sri Lankan commentary on the Mahavamsa chronicle, a work of history rather than teaching. D is wrong because the Saddharmapundarika, the Lotus Sutra, is a major Mahayana work on the one vehicle and is much later than the Pali canon. Exam tip: Tripitaka = Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka; the Dhammapada sits inside the Sutta Pitaka.

The correct answer is B, Bhopal. Bhopal stands at about 23.3° North, so of the four cities it lies nearest to the 24° parallel. Bhopal is the capital of Madhya Pradesh, and the Tropic of Cancer, at 23½° North, runs across the state just to the north of the city, which is why this belt of latitude is linked with Bhopal in examinations. A is wrong because Patna, the capital of Bihar, lies near 25.6° North, more than one and a half degrees away. C is wrong because Raipur, the capital of Chhattisgarh, lies near 21.2° North, almost three degrees to the south. D is wrong because Dispur, the capital of Assam, lies near 26.1° North and is the farthest of the four from the given latitude. One degree of latitude is about 111 km on the ground, so these differences are large. Exam tip: the Tropic of Cancer crosses eight states — Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.