RRB NTPC GK Questions 2026

The correct answer is C, AB+. A person with AB positive blood can receive red cells from every ABO and Rh group, so AB+ is called the universal recipient. The reason is simple: AB+ red cells carry the A antigen, the B antigen and the Rh (D) antigen, so the plasma has no anti-A, anti-B or anti-Rh antibodies to attack donated blood. The opposite case is O negative, whose red cells have none of these antigens, which makes O− the universal donor. Karl Landsteiner discovered the ABO groups in 1900 and received the Nobel Prize in 1930. A is wrong because O+ plasma has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, so it accepts only O blood. B is wrong because A+ has anti-B antibodies and cannot take B or AB blood. D is wrong because B+ has anti-A antibodies and cannot take A or AB blood. Exam tip: AB+ receives from all, O− gives to all.

The correct answer is C, Lord Chelmsford. Chelmsford was Viceroy from 1916 to 1921, and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre happened on 13 April 1919, the day of Baisakhi, in Amritsar. A peaceful crowd protesting the Rowlatt Act and the arrest of Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal was fired upon on the orders of General Dyer, with Michael O'Dwyer as Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab. Rabindranath Tagore returned his knighthood in protest, and the Hunter Commission was set up to inquire into the firing. The Montagu–Chelmsford reforms of the same year and the Government of India Act 1919 are also from his term. A is wrong because Lord Irwin (1926–31) is linked with the Simon Commission boycott, the Dandi March and the Gandhi–Irwin Pact. B is wrong because Dalhousie (1848–56) was a Governor-General famous for the Doctrine of Lapse. D is wrong because Ripon (1880–84) is remembered for local self-government and the Ilbert Bill. Exam tip: 1919 means Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh and Montagu–Chelmsford reforms, all under Chelmsford.

The correct answer is D, air pollution. Lichens are used as bio-indicators of air quality because they are extremely sensitive to sulphur dioxide and other gases in the air. A lichen is a partnership of a fungus and an alga (or cyanobacterium) living together; it has no roots and takes water and minerals straight from the air, so pollutants build up in it quickly. That is why lichens grow well on trees and rocks in clean hill areas but disappear from the centres of polluted cities, and scientists map their presence to judge how clean the air is. A is wrong because gas pollution is not a separate category; the gases concerned are part of air pollution. B is wrong because water pollution is judged with indicators such as coliform bacteria, BOD and algal blooms. C is wrong because soil pollution is tracked through earthworms and soil tests, not lichens. Exam tip: lichen equals sulphur dioxide equals air pollution indicator.

The correct answer is A, The Hague. The International Court of Justice sits in the Peace Palace at The Hague in the Netherlands. The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations, set up in 1945 by the UN Charter, and it settles legal disputes between countries and gives advisory opinions to UN bodies. It has 15 judges elected for nine-year terms by the General Assembly and the Security Council, and it is the only one of the six principal UN organs that is not based in New York. Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India is one of its judges. B is wrong because Paris hosts UNESCO, not the court. C is wrong because Washington D.C. is home to the IMF and the World Bank. D is wrong because New York houses the UN headquarters, the General Assembly and the Security Council. Exam tip: ICJ at The Hague, UNESCO in Paris, IMF and World Bank in Washington, UN headquarters in New York.

The correct answer is D, Zoji La. Zoji La is the pass on the Srinagar–Leh highway (NH 1) that joins the Kashmir valley with Dras and Ladakh. It sits at about 3,528 metres in the Great Himalayan range and stays snowbound for months every winter, which is why the Zojila tunnel is being built to keep Ladakh connected all year. Kargil and Dras lie just beyond it, so the pass mattered a great deal during the 1999 Kargil conflict. A is wrong because Nathu La is in Sikkim on the border with Tibet (China) and is used for the Kailash Mansarovar route and border trade. B is wrong because Bara-lacha La is in Himachal Pradesh on the Manali–Leh road, not the Srinagar road. C is wrong because Jelep La is also a Sikkim–Tibet pass, close to Nathu La. Exam tip: Srinagar–Leh means Zoji La; Manali–Leh means Rohtang and Bara-lacha La; Sikkim means Nathu La and Jelep La.

The correct answer is G. Kishan Reddy, the Union Minister of Coal and Mines, who was the Chief Guest at the function. This question is hard precisely because every option names a person who was actually present, so each must be tied to the right role. Dr Sukanta Majumdar, the Minister of State for Education and for the Development of the North Eastern Region, graced the occasion as the Special Guest, which is a different designation from Chief Guest. Hansraj Ahir, former Chairman of the National Commission for Backward Classes, presided over the ceremony rather than attending as its guest. Former Chief Justice B. R. Gavai was present on the occasion but is not described as holding either of the guest roles. Reading the roles carefully is the whole skill being tested here, and the same care pays off in questions about any award ceremony.

The correct answer is the Sansad Ratna Awards 2026. The release states that the award was presented during the sixteenth edition of the Sansad Ratna Awards, held at the Dr Ambedkar International Centre in the national capital, and it adds that the jury of the Sansad Ratna Awards Committee recognised the service of the Commission to the nation and to the cause of social justice. The same committee, along with the Prime Point Foundation, also nominated him for the honour. The other three names in the options have been built to sound like plausible award ceremonies, but none of them appears in the release. Candidates should carry the surrounding details as well, since questions are often framed around them: the Chief Guest was Union Minister of Coal and Mines G. Kishan Reddy, and former Chief Justice B. R. Gavai was present on the occasion.

The correct answer is the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. The release identifies Kishor Makwana as the Chairman of the NCSC and says the award recognises his dedicated service to that Commission and his contribution to advancing social justice, adding that the Commission has strengthened its role in safeguarding the constitutional rights of the Scheduled Castes under his leadership. Option A is the sharpest distractor, because the National Commission for Backward Classes does appear in the release, but in a different role: the ceremony was presided over by Hansraj Ahir, a former Chairman of that Commission. Option C and option D are national bodies that a candidate may confuse with the right one, yet neither is mentioned here. It is worth fixing the pairing in memory as a set, namely the recipient, the Commission he heads, and the award named after the former President of India.

The correct answer is the National Overseas Scholarship Scheme. The release says that to strengthen the authenticity of documents and prevent fraudulent claims, a system for verifying income and caste certificates on the spot, directly with the authorities that issued them, was introduced under this scheme from the academic year 2024-25, and that the measure helps ensure the benefit reaches genuine candidates aspiring to study abroad. Each of the other options is a real scheme named in the same release but carries a different reform, so they must be kept apart. SHRESHTA is where the entrance test was advanced from May to December. The National Fellowship for SC Students is where a mandatory seven-day grievance window was introduced from the academic year 2025-26, following the declaration of the UGC-NET and Joint CSIR-UGC NET results. The Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme is where the disbursement figures come from.

The correct answer is from May to December. Under the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas, the annual examination schedule of the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA has been advanced from May to December. The purpose given in the release is practical: an earlier test lets counselling and admission be completed in time, keeps the process aligned with the academic calendar, and reduces both delay and the number of students who drop out while waiting. Option D reverses the two months and is the classic trap in questions of this kind, so read the direction of the change carefully; the test now happens earlier in the cycle, not later. Options A and C name months that do not appear in the release at all. Candidates should also note the full form of SHRESHTA, since examiners ask for it as often as they ask for the reform itself.

The correct answer is Rs 12,773 crore. The release states that more than 1.44 crore Scheduled Caste students have benefited under the Pre-Matric and Post-Matric Scholarship Schemes and that scholarships amounting to Rs 12,773 crore have been disbursed to support their education. Option A is the most dangerous distractor because that amount does appear in the release, but it belongs to a different group: more than 1.01 crore students of the Other Backward Classes and the Economically Backward Classes received assistance of Rs 2,445.05 crore under the same pre-matric and post-matric schemes. The two pairs should be memorised together as pairs, so that the beneficiary count and the amount are never separated. Options B and D are figures close enough to the correct one to catch a candidate working from a hazy memory, but neither appears in the release.

The correct answer is 24. The release states in its headline and again in the opening paragraph that the operations resulted in the arrest of 24 persons, including three foreign nationals. Option B is the trickiest distractor, because the figure 22 does appear in the release, but it is the number of foreign-origin gold bars concealed in a box beneath the gearbox of a car in the Chandauli case, not a count of people. The arrests were spread across the cases: one man who owned the melting and die-cutting unit in Delhi, one from the vehicle intercepted coming from Punjab, one near the Indo-Bangladesh border, a passenger and his associate at Howrah, five in the Mumbai airport syndicate, two in the treadmill case including a Chinese national, six at Chennai and two at Calicut. Keep the headline trio together: about 41 kg of gold, about Rs 62 crore in value, 24 arrests.

The correct answer is the Border Security Force. The release records that the DRI, acting in coordination with the BSF, seized 89 pieces of foreign-origin gold bars weighing around 11.3 kg from a person near the Indo-Bangladesh border at BOP Halderpara, and that the man, unable to produce documents of lawful possession, admitted his involvement and was arrested. The other options are real central armed police forces, but their names do not appear in this release, and only one other police agency is mentioned anywhere in it, namely the police of Chandauli in Uttar Pradesh, who worked with the DRI in the case of the bars hidden beneath the gearbox of a car. Candidates should remember that the same set of operations covered airports, rail routes and the land border, and that the total came to around 41 kg of gold worth about Rs 62 crore.

The correct answer is the Customs Act, 1962. The release names this statute twice in the same episode near the Indo-Bangladesh border, saying that because the person could not produce documents for lawful possession the gold was seized under the Customs Act, and that he was arrested under the relevant provisions of the same Act. The statute appears again in the case from Chandauli in Uttar Pradesh, where the occupants of a car could not show lawful possession of 22 recovered bars. The other three options name genuine laws that candidates often associate with economic offences, and that is exactly why they have been placed here, but none of them is mentioned in this release. Smuggling of goods across the customs frontier is dealt with under customs law, which is why the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, functioning under the Ministry of Finance, proceeds under this Act.

The correct answer is 237. The release carries this as one of its headline findings, stating that in 237 districts women constitute one-third of the total workforce in the unincorporated sector. Every other option is also a real figure from the same release, which is what makes this question difficult, so each one must be attached to the right fact. The figure 280 is the number of districts where gross value added per worker exceeds the all-India average of Rs 1,56,539. The figure 331 is the approximate number of districts where gross value added per worker lies between one lakh and one and a half lakh rupees. The figure 25 is the number of districts where women make up more than half of the workforce. Two related findings are worth adding: the districts with the highest share of women-led establishments lie in Telangana, Manipur and Meghalaya, and in Mizoram at least half the establishments in every district are owned by women.

The correct answer is 757. The release says that estimates of the indicators are given for 757 out of the 770 districts available in the sampling frame at the time the ASUSE sample was selected. Option C is the sharpest distractor precisely because that figure also appears in the release, but it is the size of the sampling frame and not the number of districts actually shown, so the two must be kept apart. The gap between the two numbers is explained in the release itself. Lakshadweep and Chandigarh each have a single district, so their district estimates coincide with their union territory estimates and were already published. Delhi is excluded for a different reason, namely that its rural population is very small and its villages few, so all its districts were merged into one stratum and district estimates could not be generated. Options A and D do not appear anywhere in the release.

The correct answer is the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises 2025, abbreviated as ASUSE 2025. The release states that the report, titled Unincorporated Sector at the District Level, draws upon ASUSE data to present the scale, structure and economic performance of the sector district by district, and that this is the first initiative of the National Statistics Office to disseminate district-level estimates from a large-scale nationwide survey. The other three surveys named in the options are genuine statistical exercises, which makes them convincing distractors, but none of them is mentioned in this release and none supplies these estimates. Remember the supporting details as well: the survey covers rural and urban areas across the country, it takes in manufacturing, trade and other services, and the data were collected on tablets using computer assisted personal interviewing, with relative standard errors reported so that users can judge reliability.

The correct answer is the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The release states that the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 were notified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, and that they provide the framework for safeguarding consumers against unfair trade practices in the e-commerce sector; the amendment of 2026 strengthens that same framework. The other three statutes are real laws that a candidate may associate loosely with online business, but none of them is named in this release, and attributing the rules to them would be wrong. The chain worth memorising runs in one line: the Act of 2019 is the parent, the Rules of 2020 sit under it, the Amendment Rules of 2026 modify those rules, and the whole package takes effect from the first day of 2027. Also remember that the administering authority named here is the Department of Consumer Affairs.

The correct answer is 30 days. The amended rules provide that where a price reduction is announced, both the reduced price and the prior price shall be displayed, and they define the prior price as the lowest price at which the goods or services were offered during the thirty days preceding the announcement. The point of the provision is to stop the familiar trick of quietly raising a price and then advertising a discount from the inflated figure, because the reference point is now the lowest price in a fixed window rather than a figure of the seller choosing. The other options are periods that do not appear in the release. Candidates should tie this provision to the neighbouring ones in the same list, namely the ban on manipulating search results in a way that misleads users and the requirement that sponsored listings be identified through clear and prominent disclosures.

The correct answer is 1 January 2027. The release says in its headline points, and repeats at the very end, that the new rules shall come into force from January 1, 2027, which gives e-commerce entities a clear runway before compliance becomes mandatory. The three wrong options are all dates that sound administratively plausible, and this is precisely the trap: a candidate who remembers only that the amendment was made in 2026 may assume it applies at once, and pick the October date. It is worth separating the two years cleanly in memory. The amending instrument is titled the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026, because that is the year it was made, but the date of commencement falls in the following year. The rules it amends are the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020, which were notified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.