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RRB NTPC GK Questions 2026

Static General Knowledge makes up the rest of the General Awareness section in RRB NTPC, and the notices name its topics: General Science and Life Science up to Class 10, History of India and the freedom struggle, Physical, Social and Economic Geography of India and the world, Indian Polity and Governance, Indian Economy, Art and Culture, Indian Literature, Monuments and Places, Flora and Fauna, Famous Personalities, the UN and other world organisations, environmental issues, Transport Systems in India, Important Government and Public Sector Organisations, Common Abbreviations, and Basics of Computers and Computer Applications. RRB frames these as short factual questions: the unit of a physical quantity, the year of a battle, the article of the Constitution, the river a city stands on, the full form of an abbreviation, the headquarters of an organisation. GK24's GK notes on this page cover each topic in English and Hindi, arranged the way the syllabus lists them, with the facts RRB tends to ask placed first. Work through one topic at a time, note the lists (national parks, dances, articles, schedules, awards), and pair each topic with its quiz on GK24 to check what has stayed with you.

RRB NTPC GK Questions with Answers

Q221.SportsEasy

Who became India's first-ever Asian Games medallist in soft tennis?

  1. A.Jay Meena
  2. B.Mirabai Chanu
  3. C.Raiza Dhillon
  4. D.Maheshwari Chauhan
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Jay Meena

Explanation

The correct answer is Jay Meena. He won the bronze medal in the men's individual event in soft tennis and thereby became the first Indian ever to win an Asian Games medal in that sport. The Prime Minister described the result as a historic achievement for Indian soft tennis, said it marks a memorable new chapter for the game in India, and expressed the hope that it would inspire more youngsters to take up the sport. Option B, Mirabai Chanu, is wrong because she is a weightlifter and was congratulated the same day for a silver medal in the women's 49 kg event, not for anything in soft tennis. Option C, Raiza Dhillon, and option D, Maheshwari Chauhan, are wrong because both are shooters who were part of the women's skeet team that won a bronze medal, along with Parinaaz Dhaliwal.

Q222.DefenceMedium

In the context of SLINEX-26, what does the abbreviation VBSS stand for?

  1. A.Visit, Board, Search and Seizure
  2. B.Vessel Berthing and Safety Standards
  3. C.Visual Beacon Signalling System
  4. D.Vertical Boarding and Sea Survey
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Visit, Board, Search and Seizure

Explanation

The correct answer is Visit, Board, Search and Seizure. The release lists VBSS among the Special Forces drills carried out in the sea phase of SLINEX-26, along with slithering operations. VBSS is the standard boarding procedure by which a naval team stops a suspicious vessel, goes aboard, searches it and, where the law allows, seizes it, and it is the core skill in anti-piracy and anti-smuggling operations in the Indian Ocean Region. Option B, Vessel Berthing and Safety Standards, is invented and describes harbour regulation rather than a naval drill. Option C, Visual Beacon Signalling System, is a made-up equipment name and not a Special Forces activity. Option D, Vertical Boarding and Sea Survey, mixes two unrelated ideas and does not appear in the release. The sea phase also covered coordinated manoeuvres, air operations and replenishment at sea carried out at night.

Q223.DefenceMedium

Which edition of SLINEX was held in September 2026?

  1. A.11th
  2. B.12th
  3. C.13th
  4. D.14th
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 13th

Explanation

The correct answer is 13th. The Ministry of Defence described the exercise held from 17 to 21 September 2026 as the 13th edition of the India-Sri Lanka bilateral maritime exercise, and it concluded at Visakhapatnam. Editions are the detail most often asked about recurring exercises, so the number should be memorised along with the venue and the year. Option A, the 11th, and option B, the 12th, refer to earlier editions of the series and not to the one that ended in September 2026. Option D, the 14th, would be a future edition and has not yet been held. The exercise ran in two phases: a harbour phase with cross-deck visits and sporting interaction, and a sea phase with coordinated manoeuvres, air operations, night replenishment at sea, slithering operations and Visit, Board, Search and Seizure drills that build interoperability between the two navies.

Q224.DefenceEasy

SLINEX-26, which concluded at Visakhapatnam, is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and which country?

  1. A.Bangladesh
  2. B.Sri Lanka
  3. C.Maldives
  4. D.Indonesia
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Sri Lanka

Explanation

The correct answer is Sri Lanka. SLINEX is the bilateral maritime exercise held between the Indian Navy and the Sri Lanka Navy, and its name itself is formed from the two countries. The 13th edition, SLINEX-26, was conducted from 17 to 21 September 2026 and concluded at Visakhapatnam, with a harbour phase of professional exchanges and cross-deck visits followed by a sea phase of coordinated manoeuvres, air operations, night replenishment at sea and Special Forces drills. Option A, Bangladesh, is wrong because the exercise India conducts with the Bangladesh Navy carries a different name and did not feature in this release. Option C, Maldives, is wrong for the same reason; no Maldivian participation was reported in this exercise. Option D, Indonesia, is wrong because the release describes SLINEX strictly as an India-Sri Lanka bilateral activity, with no third navy taking part. The Ministry of Defence connected the drill to the MAHASAGAR vision and the Neighbourhood First policy.

Q225.EnvironmentMedium

Under which scheme component will the National Technical Guidelines being prepared by the NRAA be used?

  1. A.Watershed Development Component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana 3.0
  2. B.Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
  3. C.National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
  4. D.Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Watershed Development Component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana 3.0

Explanation

The correct answer is the Watershed Development Component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana in its third phase. The release states that the guidelines under preparation will be used for future generation watershed development in the country under that component, which is why the meeting spent its time on validating claims in the draft and on data from the two participating states. The crop insurance scheme in the second option is wrong, as it compensates farmers for crop loss and has no role in framing watershed guidelines. The sustainable agriculture mission in the third option is wrong; it is a separate programme and is not named anywhere in the release. The agriculture development scheme in the fourth option is wrong for the same reason. Remember the pairing of the guidelines with the watershed component and its version number, because the phase is itself examinable.

Q226.EnvironmentHard

Who presided over the National Level Technical Committee meeting held under the REWARD programme?

  1. A.The Deputy Director General (NRM) of ICAR
  2. B.Dr Chandra Shekhar Kumar, CEO of the NRAA
  3. C.The Joint Secretary (Watershed Management), Department of Land Resources
  4. D.The Commissioner of the Watershed Development Department, Karnataka
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Dr Chandra Shekhar Kumar, CEO of the NRAA

Explanation

The correct answer is Dr Chandra Shekhar Kumar, Chief Executive Officer of the National Rainfed Area Authority. The release names him as presiding over the meeting and records his instruction that claims in the draft guidelines be validated against data actually collected under the programme. The Deputy Director General for natural resource management at ICAR is wrong; he attended and spoke on integrating the land resource inventory with hydrology, but did not preside. The Joint Secretary for watershed management in the Department of Land Resources is wrong as well; his contribution was the suggestion to shorten the time taken to prepare detailed project reports. The Commissioner of the watershed department in Karnataka is wrong because he joined the meeting online as a state participant. Aspirants should remember who said what, since questions on such meetings often attach a specific proposal to the wrong officer.

Q227.EnvironmentMedium

What is the full form of the REWARD programme under which the NRAA held its technical committee meeting?

  1. A.Rejuvenating Watersheds for Agricultural Resilience through Innovative Development
  2. B.Renewing Water Resources for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. C.Restoring Ecology, Water and Rainfed Drylands
  4. D.Rural Employment through Watershed and Rainfed Development
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Rejuvenating Watersheds for Agricultural Resilience through Innovative Development

Explanation

The correct answer is Rejuvenating Watersheds for Agricultural Resilience through Innovative Development, the expansion given in the release for the programme under which the technical committee met at the NASC Complex in New Delhi. The second option is wrong; it is built from plausible words but does not match the expansion, and in particular it drops the idea of resilience, which is central to the programme's purpose. The third option is wrong for the same reason and adds terms about ecology and drylands that do not appear in the name. The fourth option is wrong because the programme is not an employment scheme, and confusing it with rural employment programmes is a common error. Candidates should also link the programme with the body running it, the National Rainfed Area Authority, which functions under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, since acronym questions are often paired with the parent ministry.

Q228.NationalHard

How many public grievances did the Ministry of Home Affairs dispose of between November 2025 and August 2026?

  1. A.7,410
  2. B.25,500
  3. C.52,050
  4. D.1,02,084
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 52,050

Explanation

The correct answer is 52,050. That is the count of public grievances the Ministry reported as disposed of over the period named in the release, and it is listed alongside the other results of its earlier round of the campaign. The first option is wrong because that figure belongs to the grievance appeals, a separate and much smaller category that is reported next to the grievances themselves and is frequently mixed up with them. The second option is wrong; no such figure appears anywhere in the release. The fourth option is wrong because that number is the office space freed in square feet across the Ministry and the Central Armed Police Forces, not a count of grievances at all, and it is included here precisely because a hurried reader may pick the largest number on the page. Read each figure with its unit before answering.

Q229.NationalMedium

When does the implementation phase of Special Campaign 6 run?

  1. A.15 September to 30 September 2026
  2. B.1 October to 15 October 2026
  3. C.2 October to 31 October 2026
  4. D.1 November to 30 November 2026
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 2 October to 31 October 2026

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 October to 31 October 2026. The campaign is split in two, and this is the second and longer part, in which the work actually happens across offices. The first option is wrong, and is the commonest error, because those are the dates of the preparation phase that comes before it; candidates who remember only one pair of dates usually give this answer. The second option is wrong because the implementation phase does not begin on the first of the month and does not end in the middle of it. The fourth option is wrong because the drive is completed within October and does not extend into the following month. A useful memory hook is that the implementation phase opens on the second day of October and runs to the last day of that month, so the whole of the month except its first day is covered.

Q230.NationalMedium

Which department organises the Special Campaign in which the Ministry of Home Affairs is taking part?

  1. A.Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
  2. B.Department of Personnel and Training
  3. C.Cabinet Secretariat
  4. D.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances

Explanation

The correct answer is the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, usually written as DARPG, which the release names as the organiser of the drive. The Ministry of Home Affairs is a participant, not the organiser, and its role is to run the campaign within its own divisions, attached offices and field formations. The Department of Personnel and Training is wrong; although it also deals with administration, the release does not connect it with this campaign. The Cabinet Secretariat is wrong as well, since monitoring inside the Ministry is described as happening at its own highest level rather than through that office. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is wrong because the campaign described here runs across central government offices and their field units, not local bodies. Aspirants should hold the organiser, the participating ministry and the two phase dates together, since questions about this campaign usually test one of those three.

Q231.Science & TechnologyHard

How many countries adopted the WAVES Declaration at the first WAVES Summit?

  1. A.47 countries
  2. B.60 countries
  3. C.77 countries
  4. D.100 countries
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 77 countries

Explanation

The correct answer is 77 countries. The declaration was one of the chief outcomes of the first edition of the World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit, held in Mumbai, and the backgrounder lists it alongside the other results of the event, including the business transactions generated by the WAVES Bazaar. The first option is wrong; no such count appears anywhere in the document. The second option is wrong, and is a trap, because that number belongs to the registrations drawn by the Create in India Challenges from creators abroad, not to the countries adopting the declaration. The fourth option is wrong for a similar reason: a three-figure count of countries is mentioned in the summary of the summit's participation, not in connection with the declaration. Aspirants should separate the three tallies carefully, since the summit description packs several country counts into a few lines.

Q232.Science & TechnologyHard

When was MyWAVES launched within the WAVES OTT platform?

  1. A.20 November 2024
  2. B.1 May 2025
  3. C.23 March 2026
  4. D.21 July 2026
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 23 March 2026

Explanation

The correct answer is 23 March 2026. MyWAVES was opened inside the existing streaming platform on that date, and it changed the service from something people only watched into something they could contribute to, by letting citizens make, upload and share original short, vertical and episodic content. The first option is wrong because that is the date the streaming platform itself was launched at the film festival in Goa, not the date the creator section appeared. The second option is wrong because that is when the first edition of the summit opened in Mumbai. The fourth option is wrong because that is the day the Gems of India Challenge pilot began, which runs through the creator section but is a later and separate step. This question rewards candidates who keep a small timeline of the four dates rather than remembering them one at a time.

Q233.Science & TechnologyMedium

At which event was Prasar Bharati's WAVES OTT platform launched?

  1. A.The 55th International Film Festival of India in Goa
  2. B.The first WAVES Summit in Mumbai
  3. C.The India International Trade Fair in New Delhi
  4. D.The Kolkata International Film Festival
Show answer

Correct answer: A. The 55th International Film Festival of India in Goa

Explanation

The correct answer is the 55th International Film Festival of India in Goa, where the platform was unveiled in November as the public broadcaster's public-service streaming service. The first WAVES Summit in Mumbai is wrong, and is the most tempting distractor because the summit carries the same name: it was held later, in May of the following year, and the streaming platform already existed by then. The India International Trade Fair is wrong, as the backgrounder connects the launch to a film festival and not to a trade exhibition. The Kolkata International Film Festival is wrong as well; although it is also a film festival, the release names the national festival held in Goa and gives its edition number. The safe way to carry this is as a set: the broadcaster, the festival with its edition number, the venue state and the launch date, since a question may supply any one of them and ask for another.

Q234.NationalHard

Under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, what punishment can tampering with a telecommunication identifier attract?

  1. A.Imprisonment up to one year or a fine up to Rs 10 lakh
  2. B.Imprisonment up to three years or a fine up to Rs 50 lakh, or both
  3. C.Only a fine, with no provision for imprisonment
  4. D.Imprisonment up to seven years with no fine
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Imprisonment up to three years or a fine up to Rs 50 lakh, or both

Explanation

The correct answer is imprisonment of up to three years or a fine of up to fifty lakh rupees, or both. The prohibition itself sits in Section 42(3)(c) of the Act, which bars tampering with telecommunication identifiers, while the neighbouring clause covers obtaining SIMs or identifiers through fraud, cheating or impersonation. The first option is wrong because it understates both the jail term and the maximum fine laid down. The third option is wrong because the statute plainly provides for imprisonment as well as a fine, and indeed allows both together. The fourth option is wrong on two counts: it stretches the term of imprisonment beyond what the Act prescribes and it wrongly removes the fine. Two further points are worth carrying: such offences are cognizable and non-bailable under Section 42(7), and under Section 42(6) a person who abets or promotes the offence is liable to the same punishment as the offender.

Q235.NationalMedium

Which body oversees the global allocation of the Type Allocation Code used in IMEI numbers?

  1. A.GSMA
  2. B.TRAI
  3. C.Department of Telecommunications
  4. D.International Telecommunication Union
Show answer

Correct answer: A. GSMA

Explanation

The correct answer is the GSMA, the Global System for Mobile Communications Association. The backgrounder says it oversees the worldwide allocation of the Type Allocation Code, handing codes to manufacturers and brand owners, who then assign unique device identities to individual handsets. TRAI is wrong, because the regulator appears in the release only in connection with the rule restricting messaging for a day after a re-issued SIM is activated, not with code allocation. The Department of Telecommunications is wrong as well; it advises citizens on what to avoid and runs the registration and verification machinery in India, but the global code pool is not its to allocate. The International Telecommunication Union is wrong because the release does not assign it this role. A useful chain to memorise is that the association allocates the code, the manufacturer assigns the full identity, and the Indian portals then register it.

Q236.NationalEasy

How many digits does an IMEI number contain?

  1. A.Ten digits
  2. B.Twelve digits
  3. C.Fifteen digits
  4. D.Eighteen digits
Show answer

Correct answer: C. Fifteen digits

Explanation

The correct answer is fifteen digits. The International Mobile Equipment Identity is described as a unique number of that length which identifies a mobile device on a telecom network, and the first eight of those digits make up the Type Allocation Code that identifies the model or type of the handset. Ten digits is wrong; that is the length of a mobile telephone number in India and the two are often confused, but a telephone number belongs to the connection while this number belongs to the device. Twelve digits is wrong as well and matches no identifier described in the backgrounder. Eighteen digits is wrong because it overstates the length, and no identifier of that size is named. Candidates should also remember the way to read one off a handset, which is by dialling the short code given in the release, and that a dual-SIM phone normally carries two such numbers, one for each slot.

Q237.EconomyHard

How many semiconductor projects have been approved under the Semicon India programme, and how many commercial units were operational as of September 2026?

  1. A.Ten approved, three operational
  2. B.Twelve approved, five operational
  3. C.Fifteen approved, six operational
  4. D.Twenty approved, eight operational
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Twelve approved, five operational

Explanation

The correct answer is twelve approved and five operational. The backgrounder states that the government has cleared this many semiconductor projects under the Semicon India programme, and that five commercial semiconductor units were already running by September of that year. The first option is wrong on both counts, understating the approvals as well as the units in production. The third option is wrong because it inflates the approvals and the operating units alike, and no such tally appears in the release. The fourth option is wrong for the same reason and is the furthest from the stated position. The point worth carrying forward is the gap between approvals and operations: a project being approved does not mean a plant is producing, which is why the release reports the two numbers separately. Candidates should also link this with the Production Linked Incentive schemes and the India Semiconductor Mission, the two instruments named as driving this build-up.

Q238.EconomyEasy

How many exhibitors took part in SEMICON India 2026?

  1. A.More than 400
  2. B.More than 600
  3. C.More than 800
  4. D.More than 1,000
Show answer

Correct answer: B. More than 600

Explanation

The correct answer is more than 600. The backgrounder records that the event brought together this many exhibitors, of whom close to three hundred were international companies, and treats that mix as a sign of the global interest now being shown in the country's semiconductor and electronics ecosystem. The first option is wrong because it falls short of the stated count and appears nowhere in the release. The third option is wrong for the opposite reason; it overstates the number, and no such figure is given. The fourth option is wrong as well, since a four-figure count is not claimed anywhere in the document. The useful pairing for an examination is the total against the international share, because a question may supply one and ask for the other, and the second figure is also the one that shows how much of the participation came from outside India.

Q239.EconomyMedium

Who moderated the panel discussion 'Industry Associations Advancing India's National Agenda' at SEMICON India 2026?

  1. A.The Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog
  2. B.Amitesh Kumar Sinha, CEO of the India Semiconductor Mission
  3. C.The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
  4. D.The Chairman of ISRO
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Amitesh Kumar Sinha, CEO of the India Semiconductor Mission

Explanation

The correct answer is Amitesh Kumar Sinha, Chief Executive Officer of the India Semiconductor Mission. The backgrounder names him as the moderator of the session, which brought senior representatives of the leading industry associations together to discuss how deeper cooperation could speed up the country's semiconductor and electronics plans. The Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog is wrong, as that office is not connected with this session in the release. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is wrong because the discussion concerned manufacturing and industry coordination rather than monetary policy, and no central bank official is mentioned. The Chairman of ISRO is wrong for the same reason; the space agency has no role in the panel described. Aspirants should remember the mission's name along with the office, because questions often ask which body the moderator headed rather than his name, and the India Semiconductor Mission is itself a frequently tested institution.

Q240.Government SchemesMedium

Which of the following statements about Ayushman Bharat was made by the Prime Minister on its eighth anniversary?

  1. A.It is the largest healthcare scheme in the world
  2. B.It is being wound up and merged into a new programme
  3. C.It covers only government employees
  4. D.It offers cover only for outpatient consultations
Show answer

Correct answer: A. It is the largest healthcare scheme in the world

Explanation

The correct answer is that it is the largest healthcare scheme in the world. The Prime Minister said the annual cover now reaches more than sixty crore beneficiaries, and on that basis described the initiative as the biggest of its kind anywhere. The second option is wrong, because nothing in the message speaks of the scheme being wound up or merged; the tone of the anniversary message is the opposite, pointing to expansion and to record savings on medical expenses. The third option is wrong because the message identifies the poor and the middle class as the groups that have gained, not a restricted category of government employees. The fourth option is wrong because the cover described is an annual health cover, and the message separately credits the Ayushman Arogya Mandirs with strengthening primary care, showing that the two parts of the initiative are distinct rather than the cover being limited to outpatient visits.