Which Commission recommended 27% reservation for OBC candidates in all levels of government services?
- A.Sarkaria Commission
- B.Mandal Commission
- C.Balwant Commission
- D.Kothari Commission
Correct answer
B. Mandal Commission
Explanation
The correct answer is B, Mandal Commission. The Second Backward Classes Commission, headed by B. P. Mandal, recommended 27 per cent reservation for Other Backward Classes in central government services and public undertakings. It was appointed in 1979 and submitted its report in 1980, listed 3,743 castes as backward and put the share of the OBCs in the population at about 52 per cent. The quota was fixed at 27 per cent so that total reservation would stay within the 50 per cent ceiling the courts had indicated. The recommendation was put into effect in 1990, and the Supreme Court upheld it in the Indra Sawhney case of 1992. A is wrong because the Sarkaria Commission of 1983 examined Centre-State relations. C is wrong because the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee of 1957 suggested the three-tier panchayati raj system. D is wrong because the Kothari Commission of 1964-66 dealt with education. Exam tip: Mandal Commission 1979, report 1980, 27 per cent OBC quota, upheld in Indra Sawhney 1992.
Practice Questions
View allIn which of the following years was the Bharatiya Janta Party founded?
- A.1957
- B.1934
- C.1980
- D.1967
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1980
Explanation
The correct answer is C, 1980. The Bharatiya Janata Party was founded on 6 April 1980, after the Janata Party broke up.
Its ancestor was the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, started by Syama Prasad Mookerjee in 1951. In 1977 the Jana Sangh merged with other opposition groups to form the Janata Party, which came to power after the Emergency. When that coalition split in 1979, its former Jana Sangh members left and set up the BJP in 1980, with Atal Bihari Vajpayee as its first president. The party's election symbol is the lotus. It first led a government in 1996 for thirteen days, and then from 1998 to 2004 under Vajpayee.
A is wrong: 1957 was the year of the second general election, not of this party's birth. B is wrong: 1934 falls deep in the colonial period, long before the BJP existed. D is wrong: 1967 was the year of the fourth general election and of the first non-Congress governments in several states.
Exam tip: Jana Sangh in 1951, Janata Party in 1977, and the BJP founded on 6 April 1980 with Vajpayee as its first president.
Which of these countries is an example of 'holding together federation'?
- A.New Zealand
- B.Australia
- C.USA
- D.India
Show answer
Correct answer: D. India
Explanation
The correct answer is D, India. India is the standard example of a holding together federation, because one large country chose to divide its powers among states while keeping a strong central government.
Federations are formed in two ways. In a coming together federation, independent states join hands by choice, keep roughly equal powers and stay fairly strong against the centre; the United States, Australia and Switzerland were made this way. In a holding together federation, a single big country decides to share its power with the states, and the central government usually stays the more powerful partner; India, Spain and Belgium belong to this group. Such federations often give unequal powers to different units, which is why India has special arrangements for some states and for the union territories.
A is wrong: New Zealand is a unitary state and not a federation at all. B is wrong: Australia was formed when its colonies came together in 1901. C is wrong: the USA is the textbook coming together federation, made by thirteen states in 1787.
Exam tip: coming together — USA, Australia, Switzerland; holding together — India, Spain, Belgium.
Article 76 of the Constitution of India deals with the office of the:
- A.Finance Commission
- B.UPSC
- C.Election Commission
- D.Attorney General of India
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Attorney General of India
Explanation
The correct answer is D, Attorney General of India. Article 76 provides for the Attorney General, the highest law officer of the Union, appointed by the President from among persons qualified to be a judge of the Supreme Court. He advises the government on legal matters, appears for it in the Supreme Court and in any High Court, and has the right to speak in both Houses of Parliament and their committees, though he cannot vote. He holds office during the pleasure of the President and is not a whole-time government servant, so he may take private practice but cannot advise against the Union. The Solicitor General, who assists him, is not mentioned in the Constitution. A is wrong because the Finance Commission is under Article 280. B is wrong because the UPSC comes under Article 315. C is wrong because the Election Commission is set up by Article 324. Exam tip: remember 76 Attorney General, 148 CAG, 280 Finance Commission, 315 UPSC and 324 Election Commission.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which of the following?
- A.Lok Sabha
- B.Parliament
- C.Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
- D.President of India
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Lok Sabha
Explanation
The correct answer is A, Lok Sabha. Article 75(3) says the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People, that is the Lok Sabha. Collective responsibility means the ministry stands or falls together: if the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion, the whole Council of Ministers must resign, not only the minister whose work was questioned. This is the heart of the parliamentary system India borrowed from Britain. Article 75(4) adds that ministers are sworn in by the President, and Article 75(2) that they hold office during his pleasure, which is individual responsibility. B and C are wrong because the Rajya Sabha can criticise and question the government but cannot remove it; only the directly elected House can. D is wrong because the President appoints ministers on the Prime Minister's advice but the Council is not answerable to him. Exam tip: no-confidence motion lies only in the Lok Sabha.
Which Article allows Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-State rivers and to bar the jurisdiction of courts in such disputes?
- A.Article 256
- B.Article 257
- C.Article 262
- D.Article 263
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Article 262
Explanation
The correct answer is C, Article 262. Article 262 lets Parliament provide by law for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint about the use, distribution or control of the waters of an inter-State river or river valley, and it also permits Parliament to provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in such a dispute; the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act of 1956 was enacted under it, and tribunals are set up under that Act. Option A is wrong because Article 256 obliges a State to exercise its executive power so as to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament. Option B is wrong because Article 257 deals with the Union's control over States, including directions on communications of national importance and on the protection of railways. Option D is wrong because Article 263 creates the Inter-State Council, an advisory body, not a tribunal.