Under which law does the Central Consumer Protection Authority exercise its powers?
- A.Competition Act, 2002
- B.Consumer Protection Act, 2019
- C.Legal Metrology Act, 2009
- D.Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Correct answer
B. Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Explanation
The correct answer is the Consumer Protection Act of 2019, under whose statutory mandate the authority acts to protect consumers as a class, to prevent unfair trade practices and to ensure that no false or misleading advertisement is made about goods or services. Option A is wrong because competition law is enforced by a different regulator and targets anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominance. Option C is wrong because legal metrology deals with weights, measures and packaged commodity declarations. Option D is wrong because that statute concerns supplies of essential goods and price control. Remember alongside this that aggrieved consumers may take complaints about misleading advertisements, unfair trade practices or dark patterns to the National Consumer Helpline, whose number is given in the release.
Read the full article: CCPA Fines Rapido 10 Lakh Rupees for Dark Patterns
Practice Questions
Which two dark patterns did the Central Consumer Protection Authority find in Rapido's ride-booking interface?
- A.Drip pricing and bait and switch
- B.Confirm shaming and interface interference
- C.False urgency and basket sneaking
- D.Subscription trap and forced action
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Confirm shaming and interface interference
Explanation
The correct answer is confirm shaming and interface interference. The first was found in the prompts that told a rider, after the booking had already been made, that captains were not accepting at the quoted fare and that a higher price improves the chance of getting a ride. The authority held that this created urgency and a fear of losing the ride. The second was found in the colour-coded slider, which showed green for a higher price, a warning colour for a lower one, and gave more room to raise the fare than to reduce it. Options A, C and D all name dark patterns that appear in the same body of guidelines, which is what makes them plausible, but none of them was the finding in this order. Learn the pair together with the penalty amount.
Under which guidelines are dark patterns identified and regulated in India?
- A.Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
- B.Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines, 2025
- C.E-Commerce Rules, 2020
- D.Digital Advertising Code, 2022
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
Explanation
The correct answer is the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns of 2023, under which both the findings in this order are identified as recognised dark patterns. Option B is the trap, and a good one: those guidelines were indeed cited in the same order, but for a different point, namely that a tipping feature may be made available only after the ride has been completed and not at the time of booking or during the ride. Option C names a set of rules that governs online marketplaces rather than the classification of manipulative design. Option D is invented. An aspirant should keep the two real instruments apart by their subject: one classifies deceptive interface design, the other governs how ride aggregators must behave, including when a tip may be sought.
How many qualifying dates in a year are available for enrolment as a voter after the 2021 amendment?
- A.One
- B.Two
- C.Four
- D.Six
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Four
Explanation
The correct answer is four. The Commission's note recalls that Section 14 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 was amended by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act of 2021, and that the amendment provides four qualifying dates in a year on which a citizen may be enrolled as a voter. Before this change a single qualifying date governed enrolment, which is what option A describes and which is now out of date. Options B and D give numbers the law does not use. The practical effect is that a young citizen who turns eighteen need not wait a full year for the roll to open. The Commission also notes that the rolls keep getting updated until the last date of filing nominations, for applications received up to ten days before that date, so the roll is not frozen the moment the election is announced.
The Nandigram Assembly constituency, going to a bye-election, is in which State?
- A.Assam
- B.Tamil Nadu
- C.Puducherry
- D.West Bengal
Show answer
Correct answer: D. West Bengal
Explanation
The correct answer is West Bengal. The Commission's list places Nandigram along with Rejinagar in West Bengal, both vacant because the sitting members resigned. Option A names Assam, which appears on the list but with a parliamentary constituency, Nagaon, not an Assembly seat. Option B names Tamil Nadu, which contributes two reserved Assembly seats to this round, Madurantakam and Dharapuram, both Scheduled Caste constituencies. Option C names Puducherry, a Union Territory with a legislature, which contributes the single seat of Thattanchavady. Map the six seats to their four units of the Union while revising, because a question may equally ask how many States and Union Territories are involved. The answer to that would be three States, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Assam, and one Union Territory, Puducherry.
On which date will voting be held in the bye-elections announced on 7 September 2026?
- A.16 September 2026
- B.19 September 2026
- C.6 October 2026
- D.9 October 2026
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 6 October 2026
Explanation
The correct answer is 6 October 2026, the date of poll in the schedule annexed to the Commission's announcement. The other three options are all real dates from the same schedule, which is exactly why this question separates the candidate who read the calendar from the one who only glanced at it. Option A is the last date for making nominations. Option B is the last date for the withdrawal of candidatures, which falls two days after the scrutiny of nominations. Option D is the date of counting of votes, which comes three days after the poll. One more date completes the sequence: the gazette notification is issued on 9 September 2026 and the whole election has to be completed before 11 October 2026. Learn the chain in order, notification, nomination, scrutiny, withdrawal, poll, counting, because examiners like to ask for one link out of it.