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Indian Polity Mixed Quiz: Set 74

  • 20 questions
  • 20 minutes
  • Difficulty: Medium
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About this quiz

Set 74 of the Indian Polity mixed quiz has 20 multiple-choice questions from 11 different topics of the subject: RTI and Good Governance Laws, Delimitation, Seat Reservation and the Women's Reservation Act, Parts of the Indian Constitution and more. 7 of them were asked in real previous-year papers. A topic quiz checks one chapter; this set revises the whole subject at once, the way an exam paper does, where the next question can come from any chapter. Every question carries an explanation of why the correct option is right and why the others are wrong. Keep to the timer, read the explanations at the end, and go back to the notes of any topic where you slipped.

Questions in this quiz

20 questions with answers and explanations

Q1.Indian PolityMedium

Who chairs the selection committee that recommends the appointment of the Chairperson of the Lokpal?

  1. A.The President
  2. B.The Prime Minister
  3. C.The Chief Justice of India
  4. D.The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Prime Minister

Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 the Chairperson and members of the Lokpal are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a selection committee consisting of the Prime Minister as chairperson, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief…

Q2.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2026, GKHard

Consider the following statements regarding the delimitation exercise carried out in Assam in 2023 : 1. The delimitation of constituencies was done on the basis of 2001 census. 2. No increase was made in the number of ST Assembly seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

The 2023 delimitation in Assam used the 2001 Census figures, but it raised the number of Assembly seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes.

Q3.Indian PolityEasy

Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship?

  1. A.Part I
  2. B.Part II
  3. C.Part III
  4. D.Part IV
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Part II

Part II of the Constitution, Articles 5 to 11, deals with citizenship: Article 5 lays down who became a citizen at the commencement of the Constitution, Articles 6 and 7 settle the position of persons who migrated from and to Pakistan, Article 8 covers persons of Indian origin living abroad…

Q4.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2026, Paper IMedium

Which of the following statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is/are correct?

1. In India, it adheres to the strict requirements imposed by the doctrine of locus standi.

2. Letters to judges may be treated as petitions.

3. M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India was a PIL that expanded the scope of Article 21 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1 and 2 only
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3 only

PIL in India relaxes the rule of locus standi, so statement 1 is wrong, while statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q5.Indian PolityAsked in: Delhi · 10 Oct 2021, Shift 1Easy

Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to the term of office of the Governor?

  1. A.156
  2. B.161
  3. C.165
  4. D.152
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 156

Article 156 deals with the term of office of the Governor: clause (1) says that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, clause (2) allows him to resign by writing addressed to the President, and clause (3) fixes his normal term at five years from the date…

Q6.Indian PolityMedium

A second appeal under the RTI Act, 2005 lies to the Information Commission within how many days of the decision appealed against?

  1. A.30 days
  2. B.45 days
  3. C.60 days
  4. D.90 days
Show answer
Correct answer: D. 90 days

The Act provides two appeals. Under Section 19(1) the first appeal is filed within thirty days of the reply or of the expiry of the time limit, and it goes to an officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer within the same public authority, the First Appellate Authority.

Q7.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2021, Paper IHard

Which one of the following statements about 'personal liberty' is not correct?

  1. A.State does not have the authority to deprive any person within the territory of India of his/her personal liberty without any rational basis.
  2. B.Basis of depriving a person of his/her personal liberty must be in accordance with procedures established by law.
  3. C.Personal liberty can be secured by the judicial writ of Habeas Corpus.
  4. D.The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented 'due process of law'.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented 'due process of law'.

In A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras (1950) the majority rejected 'due process of law' and read Article 21 narrowly, so the statement is wrong.

Q8.Indian PolityMedium

The Central Bureau of Investigation derives its powers of investigation from which law?

  1. A.The Central Bureau of Investigation Act, 1963
  2. B.The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
  3. C.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
  4. D.The National Investigation Agency Act, 2008
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946

The CBI was created on 1 April 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs, and because a resolution cannot confer police powers, it exercises the powers of the Special Police Establishment under the Act of 1946, whose ancestor was the war-time body of 1941 that investigated bribery…

Q9.Indian PolityHard

Which of the following statements about Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005 is correct?

  1. A.It lists the categories of information exempt from disclosure
  2. B.It provides for the appointment of Public Information Officers
  3. C.It prescribes the penalty for delay in furnishing information
  4. D.It establishes the State Information Commissions
Show answer
Correct answer: A. It lists the categories of information exempt from disclosure

Section 8(1) lists ten categories of information that a public authority is not obliged to disclose, among them information affecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, strategic and security interests, foreign relations, commercial confidence and trade secrets, information held in a fiduciary relationship, and personal information with no relation to…

Q11.Indian PolityEasy

Fundamental Duties are contained in which Part of the Indian Constitution?

  1. A.Part III
  2. B.Part IV
  3. C.Part IV-A
  4. D.Part XIV-A
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Part IV-A

Part IV-A was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, and it consists of a single article, Article 51A, which originally listed ten Fundamental Duties; an eleventh duty, on providing education to a child between six and fourteen years, was added…

Q12.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 only

Only statement 2 is right: under the RTE Act a primary teacher must clear a Teacher Eligibility Test held as per NCTE guidelines.

Q13.Indian PolityEasy

The President of India addresses his resignation to which of the following?

  1. A.Chief Justice of India
  2. B.Vice-President of India
  3. C.Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  4. D.Prime Minister of India
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Vice-President of India

Article 56(1)(a) provides that the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office, and the Vice-President must communicate the resignation forthwith to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q14.Indian PolityMedium

Which of the following is a qualification for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India?

  1. A.Five years of practice as an advocate of a High Court
  2. B.Ten years of service as a judge of a High Court
  3. C.Five years as a judge of a High Court
  4. D.Completion of 45 years of age
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Five years as a judge of a High Court

Article 124(3) requires a citizen of India who either has been a judge of a High Court for at least five years, or has been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years, or is in the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist.

Q16.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2026, GKMedium

Which of the following statements about National Human Rights Commission, India is/are correct ? 1. It can intervene in court proceedings involving human rights violations with the approval of the court 2. It can undertake research in the field of human rights 3. It cannot investigate human rights violation on its own initiative Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 1 and 2 only

The NHRC can join court cases on human rights with the court's approval and can promote research, but statement 3 is wrong because it can act on its own.

Q17.Indian PolityEasy

Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?

  1. A.Vice-President of India
  2. B.Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. C.Chief Justice of India
  4. D.Outgoing President
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Chief Justice of India

Article 60 lays down the form of the President's oath and requires that it be made in the presence of the Chief Justice of India, or, in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court available.

Q18.Indian PolityEasy

Articles 352 to 360 of the Constitution of India fall under which Part?

  1. A.Part XVI
  2. B.Part XVII
  3. C.Part XVIII
  4. D.Part XX
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Part XVIII

Part XVIII, Articles 352 to 360, contains the Emergency provisions: Article 352 provides for a Proclamation of Emergency on the ground of war, external aggression or armed rebellion, Articles 353 to 355 state its effects and the duty of the Union to protect States, Article 356 provides for President's rule…

Q19.Indian PolityMedium

The oath of office to the Governor of a State is administered by which of the following?

  1. A.President of India
  2. B.Chief Justice of India
  3. C.Chief Justice of the High Court of that State
  4. D.Chief Minister of the State
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Chief Justice of the High Court of that State

Article 159 requires every Governor, before entering upon his office, to make an oath in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court having jurisdiction in relation to that State, or, in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available.

Q20.Indian PolityMedium

Part IX-A of the Indian Constitution, inserted in 1992, deals with which subject?

  1. A.The Panchayats
  2. B.The Municipalities
  3. C.The Co-operative Societies
  4. D.The Scheduled and Tribal Areas
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Municipalities

Part IX-A, Articles 243-P to 243-ZG, was inserted by the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992 and gives constitutional status to urban local bodies, providing for three types of municipalities, ward committees, five-year terms, reservation of seats, the State Election Commission, the State Finance Commission and the Twelfth Schedule of eighteen…

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