Skip to content
GK24
GK QuizIndian Polity

Indian Polity Mixed Quiz: Set 104

  • 20 questions
  • 20 minutes
  • Difficulty: Medium
Start Quiz

About this quiz

Set 104 of the Indian Polity mixed quiz has 20 multiple-choice questions from 13 different topics of the subject: Fundamental Rights, List of Chief Justices of India, President and Vice-President and more. 7 of them were asked in real previous-year papers. A topic quiz checks one chapter; this set revises the whole subject at once, the way an exam paper does, where the next question can come from any chapter. Every question carries an explanation of why the correct option is right and why the others are wrong. Keep to the timer, read the explanations at the end, and go back to the notes of any topic where you slipped.

Questions in this quiz

20 questions with answers and explanations

Q3.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2022, GKEasy

Which one of the following methods is followed in electing the President of India ?

  1. A.Proportional Representation only
  2. B.First-Past-the-Post System only
  3. C.Proportional Representation and the Single Transferable Vote System
  4. D.Proportional Representation and the First-Past-the-Post System
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Proportional Representation and the Single Transferable Vote System

Article 55(3) of the Constitution says the President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, and the voting is by secret ballot.

Q4.Indian PolityMedium

Which anti-terror law was repealed in 2004, with its provisions moved into the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act?

  1. A.MISA, 1971
  2. B.TADA, 1985
  3. C.POTA, 2002
  4. D.The National Security Act, 1980
Show answer
Correct answer: C. POTA, 2002

The Prevention of Terrorism Act was enacted in 2002 and repealed in 2004, and the amendment of the UAPA made in the same year carried its definitions of terrorist act and terrorist organisation into that older Act, which is why the UAPA is today the principal anti-terror law.

Q5.Indian PolityAsked in: NDA · NDA-II 2024, GATMedium

Which of the following Committees does NOT consist of Members from the Upper House of the Parliament? 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2 only

The Estimates Committee is drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha, while the other two financial committees include members of the Rajya Sabha.

Q6.Indian PolityHard

Which secular law already allows any two Indian citizens to marry without changing their religion, and is therefore called a voluntary uniform civil code?

  1. A.The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  2. B.The Special Marriage Act, 1954
  3. C.The Indian Succession Act, 1925
  4. D.The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Special Marriage Act, 1954

It provides a civil form of marriage open to all Indian citizens irrespective of religion, with registration before a marriage officer after a notice period, and succession in such marriages is governed by the Indian Succession Act rather than any religious law.

Q9.Indian PolityAsked in: NDA · NDA-II 2024, GATEasy

Which of the following statements with regard to Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct ? 1. Freedoms under this Article are not absolute 2. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of freedoms under this Article Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2

The six freedoms of Article 19(1) are not absolute, because clauses (2) to (6) let the State place reasonable restrictions on them.

Q11.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2020, GKMedium

Which one of the following statements with regard to the appointment of the Members of the Parliamentary Committees is correct?

  1. A.The Members are only appointed.
  2. B.The Members are only elected.
  3. C.The Members are only nominated.
  4. D.The Members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The Members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

This is part of the very definition of a parliamentary committee: it is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the presiding officer, works under the presiding officer's direction, reports to the House, and has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha secretariat.

Q12.Indian PolityHard

The Delimitation Commission for Jammu and Kashmir, whose final order of 2022 fixed ninety assembly seats, was headed by:

  1. A.Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
  2. B.Justice Kurian Joseph
  3. C.Justice R. C. Lahoti
  4. D.Justice Deepak Verma
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai

A retired judge of the Supreme Court, she chaired the Delimitation Commission set up in March 2020 for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, which gave its final order in May 2022.

Q14.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2023, Paper IEasy

The National Human Rights Commission was established under the statute of :

  1. A.The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
  2. B.The Protection and Implementation of Human Rights Act, 1993
  3. C.The Human Rights Act, 1993
  4. D.The Human Rights Commission Act, 1993
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

The NHRC is a statutory body set up on 12 October 1993 under this Act, which Parliament passed after an ordinance of September 1993.

Q15.Indian PolityEasy

The basic structure doctrine was laid down by the Supreme Court in which case?

  1. A.Shankari Prasad versus Union of India, 1951
  2. B.Sajjan Singh versus State of Rajasthan, 1965
  3. C.Kesavananda Bharati versus State of Kerala, 1973
  4. D.Minerva Mills versus Union of India, 1980
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Kesavananda Bharati versus State of Kerala, 1973

A bench of thirteen judges held by a majority of seven to six that Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368 but cannot destroy or damage its basic structure or essential features.

Q16.Indian PolityMedium

The Union Territories are dealt with in which Part of the Constitution of India?

  1. A.Part VI
  2. B.Part VII
  3. C.Part VIII
  4. D.Part IX
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Part VIII

Part VIII, Articles 239 to 242, deals with the Union Territories: Article 239 provides that every Union Territory shall be administered by the President through an administrator, Article 239A allows Parliament to create a legislature for a Union Territory, Article 239AA makes special provision for the National Capital Territory of…

Q17.Indian PolityHard

The doctrine of prospective overruling was applied for the first time in India in which case?

  1. A.I. C. Golaknath versus State of Punjab, 1967
  2. B.Maneka Gandhi versus Union of India, 1978
  3. C.Indira Sawhney versus Union of India, 1992
  4. D.S. R. Bommai versus Union of India, 1994
Show answer
Correct answer: A. I. C. Golaknath versus State of Punjab, 1967

An eleven judge bench held by six to five that Parliament cannot abridge Fundamental Rights by amendment, but the Court did not want to unsettle the land reform amendments already acted upon, so it declared that its ruling would operate only for the future.

Q18.Indian PolityEasy

The oath of office to the President of India is administered by which authority?

  1. A.The Prime Minister
  2. B.The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
  3. C.The Chief Justice of India
  4. D.The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: C. The Chief Justice of India

Article 60 provides that the President shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court available.

Q19.Indian PolityMedium

Which statement about the doctrine of eclipse is correct?

  1. A.It applies equally to pre-Constitution and post-Constitution laws that violate Fundamental Rights
  2. B.It applies to pre-Constitution laws, which remain dormant and may revive if the constitutional bar is removed
  3. C.It permits a court to strike down only the offending part of a statute
  4. D.It allows a citizen to give up a Fundamental Right voluntarily
Show answer
Correct answer: B. It applies to pre-Constitution laws, which remain dormant and may revive if the constitutional bar is removed

Article 13(1) makes a pre-Constitution law void only to the extent of its inconsistency with the Fundamental Rights, so the Supreme Court in Bhikaji Narain Dhakras, 1955, held that such a law is not erased but merely eclipsed, staying unenforceable until the shadow is lifted, after which it revives.

View all quizzes