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UPSC GK Questions 2026

Static general knowledge is the larger part of every UPSC general studies paper. The notices name the same areas again and again: the history of India and the national movement, Indian and world geography, polity and the Constitution, the economy and social development, and general science with environment and ecology. The balance shifts from exam to exam. NDA puts about half of its General Knowledge part on Physics, Chemistry and General Science. CSE favours polity, modern history, environment and the economy. CAPF adds security and human rights, and CDS spreads its questions across polity, history, geography, the economy and school science.

GK24's GK notes are written topic by topic in English and Hindi, as short, fact-first chapters that are easy to revise. They cover Indian Polity, Indian History, Geography, Indian Economy, General Science, Environment and Ecology, Art and Culture, Computer, and the fact lists of awards, sports, books and days. A new chapter is added in each subject as the series grows. Each note carries practice questions, and those that have appeared in an exam say which exam and year. Start with Polity and modern history, then Geography, the Economy and Science. Read a note, take its topic quiz, and come back to it in your monthly revision.

UPSC GK Questions with Answers

Q5684.NationalMedium

The Shilp Samagam Mela 2026 is being held at which venue?

  1. A.Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
  2. B.Mysuru Dasara Exhibition Grounds, Karnataka
  3. C.Dilli Haat, New Delhi
  4. D.Surajkund, Haryana
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Mysuru Dasara Exhibition Grounds, Karnataka

The correct answer is the Mysuru Dasara Exhibition Grounds in Karnataka, where the nine day fair began on the eleventh of October and will close on the nineteenth.

Q5686.EnvironmentMedium

Which two technologies did the CAQM review highlight for monitoring stubble burning?

  1. A.Satellites and ground radar
  2. B.Drones and low cost sensors
  3. C.Weather balloons and lidar
  4. D.Mobile laboratories and smog towers
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Drones and low cost sensors

The review covered their deployment for technology based monitoring and for analysing trends in farm fires, in addition to field level surveillance by officials and a close watch over the hotspot areas.

Q5687.EnvironmentEasy

CRM machinery, discussed during the review, stands for which of the following?

  1. A.Crop Rotation Management machinery
  2. B.Crop Residue Management machinery
  3. C.Climate Risk Mitigation machinery
  4. D.Central Rural Mechanisation machinery
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Crop Residue Management machinery

These are the machines that handle paddy straw left in the field after the harvest, and the Commission reviewed both their availability and their actual deployment in the two districts.

Q5688.EnvironmentMedium

Which officer led the CAQM team that reviewed paddy stubble management in Firozpur and Faridkot?

  1. A.Dr T. S. Panwar, Member (Technical)
  2. B.The Chairperson of CAQM
  3. C.The Deputy Commissioner of Moga
  4. D.The Chief Secretary of Punjab
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Dr T. S. Panwar, Member (Technical)

He headed the high level team that went to the two districts of Punjab to examine how the measures against paddy stubble burning are being carried out during the harvesting season.

Q5689.EnvironmentHard

Under which provision must the State Biodiversity Boards spend the money they have received?

  1. A.Section 32(2) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002
  2. B.Section 15 of the Environment Protection Act
  3. C.Section 8 of the Wild Life Protection Act
  4. D.Section 41 of the Forest Conservation Act
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Section 32(2) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002

The Authority has stated that the funds given to the State Biodiversity Boards and to the Union Territory Biodiversity Council are to be used only for the activities listed in that provision.

Q5692.DefenceMedium

MAHASAGAR, the vision mentioned with this deployment, stands for which of the following?

  1. A.Maritime Harmony and Secure Access for Growth and Regional Advancement
  2. B.Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
  3. C.Maritime Alliance for Shared Action, Growth and Regional Resilience
  4. D.Mutual Assistance for Humanitarian Aid, Security and Growth in Regions
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions

The Ministry of Defence used this expansion while describing the purpose behind the training deployment, under which the Indian Navy builds capacity in partner countries and strengthens regional partnerships in the Indian Ocean.

Q5693.DefenceMedium

Which ships formed the First Training Squadron during its Seychelles port call?

  1. A.INS Tir, INS Sujata and ICGS Sarathi
  2. B.INS Shivalik, INS Kamorta and ICGS Samarth
  3. C.INS Tarangini, INS Sudarshini and ICGS Vikram
  4. D.INS Delhi, INS Satpura and ICGS Abhinav
Show answer
Correct answer: A. INS Tir, INS Sujata and ICGS Sarathi

These three were the ships named by the Ministry of Defence as the vessels of the First Training Squadron that stayed at Port Victoria and then sailed out on completion of the visit.

Q5695.EconomyMedium

Under which law has NPPA fixed the trade margin ceiling on these anti-cancer drugs?

  1. A.Paragraph 19 of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013
  2. B.Section 12 of the Essential Commodities Act
  3. C.Paragraph 4 of the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy
  4. D.Rule 65 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Paragraph 19 of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013

This is the enabling provision cited by the regulator while capping the trade margin at thirty per cent of the Maximum Retail Price for the identified non-scheduled anti-cancer medicines.

Q5699.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2018, Paper IMedium

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has enormously strengthened the powers of the Speaker/Chairman of the Houses of the Parliament/State Legislatures?

  1. A.61st Amendment which reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years
  2. B.Anti-defection provisions of 52nd Amendment
  3. C.Repealing of many of the provisions of 42nd Amendment by 44th Amendment
  4. D.73rd Amendment that conferred extensive powers on Panchayat Bodies
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Anti-defection provisions of 52nd Amendment

The 1985 amendment made the presiding officer of each House the authority who decides whether a member is disqualified for defection.

GK Questions for sub-exams