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UPSC Civil Services GK Questions 2026

Static general knowledge is six of the seven lines of the General Studies Paper-I syllabus in the UPSC CSE notice: History of India and the Indian National Movement; Indian and World Geography; Indian Polity and Governance; Economic and Social Development; Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change; and General Science. The Commission tests understanding rather than recall, through statements to be judged correct or incorrect, pairs to be matched and assertion-reason items, and it likes the edges of a topic: a lesser-known provision of the Constitution, a river's tributary, a species' conservation status, the mandate of a statutory body. This page holds GK24's topic-wise GK notes for UPSC, written as short facts and tables, in English and Hindi, with each note linked to the current affairs and previous-year questions on the same topic. Start with Polity and Modern History, which carry the most questions, then Geography, the Economy, Environment, Ancient and Medieval culture and Science. Read a note, solve its PYQs, take its quiz, and come back to it in your monthly revision. A candidate who knows these notes and reads the daily current affairs has covered the syllabus the notice prescribes for Paper-I.

UPSC Civil Services GK Questions with Answers

Q3461.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IMedium

What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

  1. A.Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto
  2. B.Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government
  3. C.Foundation of Muslim League
  4. D.Aurobindo Ghosh's inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government

The Surat split of December 1907 came from a basic difference in method.

Q3462.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IEasy

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

  1. A.India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
  2. B.India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
  3. C.India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
  4. D.Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

Chabahar gives India a sea-and-land route to Afghanistan and Central Asia that bypasses Pakistan. The port lies on the Makran coast of Iran's Sistan-Baluchestan province, on the Gulf of Oman, outside the Strait of Hormuz.

Q3463.Environment & EcologyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds? 1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution of groundwater 3. Lowering of the water-table Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Heavy sand mining lowers the water table and exposes groundwater to pollution, but it does not reduce river salinity. Riverbed sand acts as a sponge and a filter: it stores water, recharges the aquifers along the river and cleans water as it seeps down.

Q3464.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IEasy

Constitutional government means

  1. A.a representative government of a nation with federal structure
  2. B.a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
  3. C.a government whose Head enjoys real powers
  4. D.a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Show answer
Correct answer: D. a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Constitutional government means limited government: those in power can act only within the limits that the constitution lays down. The essence of constitutionalism is that state power is restrained by a higher law, so that rights are protected and authority cannot be used arbitrarily.

Q3465.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following pairs : Region often mentioned in the news — Country 1. Anatolia — Turkey 2. Amhara — Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado — Spain 4. Catalonia — Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. A.Only one pair
  2. B.Only two pairs
  3. C.Only three pairs
  4. D.All four pairs
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Only two pairs

Anatolia–Turkey and Amhara–Ethiopia are correct, while Cabo Delgado and Catalonia are paired with the wrong countries. Anatolia, also called Asia Minor, is the large peninsula between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean that forms most of Turkey's territory, so pair 1 is correct.

Q3466.Sports GKAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2023, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years 2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. A.Only one
  2. B.Only two
  3. C.Only three
  4. D.All four
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Only two

Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 2 and 4 describe other awards. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, India's highest sporting honour, is given for the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over the previous four years, so pair 1 is correct.

Q3467.Science & TechnologyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements : The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission 2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA 3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only

Mangalyaan is the popular name of ISRO's Mars Orbiter Mission, and India reached Mars orbit on its first attempt, but it was not the second country to do so.

Q3468.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IMedium

'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

  1. A.European Union
  2. B.Gulf Cooperation Council
  3. C.Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
  4. D.Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Show answer
Correct answer: A. European Union

The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement was the name given to the free trade agreement that India and the European Union began negotiating in 2007.

Q3469.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IHard

Which among the following events happened earliest?

  1. A.Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
  2. B.Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
  3. C.Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
  4. D.Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.

Neeldarpan, the Bengali play about the cruelty of European indigo planters towards the peasants of Bengal, was written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–59 and published in 1860, earlier than the other three events.

Q3470.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2019, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements : 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

Statement 1 is the definition of purchasing power parity, while statement 2 understates India's position. A PPP exchange rate is the rate at which the currency of one country would have to be converted into that of another to buy the same basket of goods and services in both.

Q3471.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IEasy

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

  1. A.A Democratic Republic
  2. B.A Sovereign Democratic Republic
  3. C.A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
  4. D.A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Show answer
Correct answer: B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic

When the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, its Preamble declared India a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

Q3472.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IMedium

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

The main and certain advantage of GST is that it subsumes many indirect taxes into one and creates a common national market.

Q3474.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2019, GS Paper IMedium

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements : 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements deny powers of judicial review that Indian courts clearly hold. Statement 1 is wrong.

Q3475.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IMedium

Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

  1. A.the Right to Equality
  2. B.the Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. C.the Right to Freedom
  4. D.the Concept of Welfare
Show answer
Correct answer: B. the Directive Principles of State Policy

Article 39(c), one of the Directive Principles in Part IV, directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Q3476.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IEasy

Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

  1. A.It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
  2. B.China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
  3. C.A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
  4. D.Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

The Senkaku Islands are a small group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea, administered by Japan and claimed by China, which calls them the Diaoyu Islands; Taiwan also claims them as Diaoyutai.

Q3477.Reports & IndicesHard

Under the revised design, how many Second Stage Strata will there be and how many households will be canvassed in each First Stage Unit?

  1. A.Four rural and five urban strata, with 14 households per First Stage Unit
  2. B.Five rural and four urban strata, with 12 households per First Stage Unit
  3. C.Three rural and three urban strata, with 16 households per First Stage Unit
  4. D.Four rural and four urban strata, with 15 households per First Stage Unit
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Four rural and five urban strata, with 14 households per First Stage Unit

A new Second Stage Stratum based on digital platform work is being introduced because experience showed that the earlier arrangement did not capture an adequate number of such workers, while the rest of the stratum structure and composition is retained.

Q3478.Reports & IndicesMedium

From which month will the modified sampling design and schedule of the Periodic Labour Force Survey take effect?

  1. A.January 2025
  2. B.January 2026
  3. C.January 2027
  4. D.April 2027
Show answer
Correct answer: C. January 2027

The modified sampling design, the changed estimation procedure and the revised schedule all take effect from that month, when fresh samples for the two-year period 2027-2028, known as Panel 6, will be drawn from an updated sampling frame.

Q3479.Reports & IndicesEasy

Which body conducts the Periodic Labour Force Survey in India?

  1. A.The Reserve Bank of India
  2. B.The National Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  3. C.NITI Aayog
  4. D.The Ministry of Labour and Employment
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The National Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

That office has been conducting the Periodic Labour Force Survey since 2017, and the survey has steadily widened to meet the demand for labour market statistics that arrive sooner and can be broken down further.

Q3480.DefenceMedium

How many countries will send experts to the Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue 2026, and how many thematic sessions does it have?

  1. A.12 countries and three sessions
  2. B.18 countries and five sessions
  3. C.25 countries and seven sessions
  4. D.18 countries and seven sessions
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 18 countries and five sessions

Maritime practitioners, scientists, academicians, policymakers and experts from 18 countries across the Indo-Pacific will contribute to the dialogue, and the conference has five professional thematic sessions spread over its three days.