SSC 2024 Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is C, 1856. Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh in February 1856, in the last weeks of his term as Governor-General from 1848 to 1856. The ground given was misgovernment, not the Doctrine of Lapse: Nawab Wajid Ali Shah had heirs, so the British simply declared his rule corrupt and removed him, sending him to Calcutta. The move angered the many sepoys of the Bengal Army who came from Awadh, and it became one of the causes of the Revolt of 1857, in which Begum Hazrat Mahal led the fight at Lucknow. A is wrong because 1857 is the year of the Revolt itself, which broke out a year after the annexation. B is wrong because in 1850 Dalhousie was taking smaller states under the Doctrine of Lapse, such as Satara in 1848 and Jhansi in 1853, but Awadh was not yet touched. D is wrong because 1858 is the year the Government of India Act ended Company rule and the Crown took over. Exam tip: Awadh 1856 on the charge of misgovernment; Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur under the Doctrine of Lapse.

The correct answer is B, Lord Metcalfe. As acting Governor-General, Sir Charles Metcalfe repealed the licensing regulations of 1823 through the Press Act of 1835, so he is called the 'Liberator of the Indian Press'. The 1823 regulations had been imposed by acting Governor-General John Adam, and they made every printing press take a government licence, which could be withdrawn at will. Metcalfe replaced this with a simple rule: a printer or publisher only had to declare where the press was. Papers like to set the trap of Ripon here, because he too freed the press, but decades later. A is wrong because Lord Lytton did the opposite; he passed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, called the 'gagging Act'. C is wrong because Lord Ripon repealed Lytton's Vernacular Press Act in 1882, not the 1823 regulations. D is wrong because Lord Ellenborough, Governor-General from 1842 to 1844, is known for the annexation of Sindh, not for press freedom. Exam tip: Adam 1823 gagged the press, Metcalfe 1835 freed it, Lytton 1878 gagged it again, Ripon 1882 freed it.

The correct answer is separation of judiciary from executive. Article 50 says the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. Before independence, district magistrates, who were executive officers, also tried criminal cases. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 gave effect to Article 50 by creating separate judicial magistrates, so that the officers who run the administration no longer sit in judgment over the cases it brings.

The other options come from elsewhere in the Constitution. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies is in Articles 330 and 332. The right to elementary education is a Fundamental Right under Article 21A. The appointment of a Governor by the President is under Article 155. Article 50 sits among the liberal-intellectual Directive Principles, and it is often asked alongside Article 51 on international peace, the last Article of Part IV.

The correct answer is Article 37. It says two things at once: the provisions of Part IV "shall not be enforceable by any court", but the principles laid down in it are "nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws". That is why a citizen cannot sue the government for failing to bring in, say, a Uniform Civil Code, yet courts often rely on the Directive Principles when they judge whether a law is reasonable.

The other options are traps built from nearby numbers. Article 40 is itself a Directive Principle, on organising village panchayats, but it does not state the nature of the whole chapter. Article 30 gives minorities the right to run educational institutions, and Article 35 deals with Parliament's power to make laws giving effect to certain Fundamental Rights; both are in Part III. When a question quotes the words "fundamental in the governance of the country", the answer is always Article 37.

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy. Part IV of the Constitution, Articles 36 to 51, contains the Directive Principles: the goals the State should pursue in making laws and policies, such as a living wage, free legal aid, village panchayats and a Uniform Civil Code. Article 37 makes them non-justiciable but "fundamental in the governance of the country".

Each wrong option belongs to a different Part. The Fundamental Rights are in Part III, Articles 12 to 35. The Fundamental Duties are in Part IVA, a single Article, 51A, added in 1976. "The Union" is Part V, which begins at Article 52 with the President and covers the Union executive, Parliament and the Supreme Court. Learning the four Parts in a row makes this kind of question easy: Part III rights (12–35), Part IV directives (36–51), Part IVA duties (51A), and Part V the Union (from 52).

The correct answer is C, Tennis. 'Ace Against Odds' is the autobiography of Sania Mirza, India's most successful woman tennis player, published in 2016 and written with her father Imran Mirza and Shivani Gupta. The title plays on 'ace', a serve the opponent cannot touch. Sania became the first Indian woman to win a WTA singles title, at Hyderabad in 2005, and went on to win six Grand Slam doubles titles, three in women's doubles with Martina Hingis and three in mixed doubles, and to become world number one in doubles in 2015. She received the Arjuna Award in 2004, the Khel Ratna in 2015 and the Padma Bhushan in 2016. A is wrong because the best-known shooting autobiography is Abhinav Bindra's 'A Shot at History'. B is wrong because badminton star Saina Nehwal's book is 'Playing to Win'. D is wrong because cricket autobiographies include Sachin Tendulkar's 'Playing It My Way'. Exam tip: Ace Against Odds = Sania Mirza (tennis); A Shot at History = Abhinav Bindra (shooting); Playing It My Way = Sachin Tendulkar (cricket).

The correct answer is C, N2O. Laughing gas is nitrous oxide, N2O, a colourless gas with a faintly sweet smell that makes people giggle and feel light-headed when they breathe it in. It was first prepared by Joseph Priestley in 1772, and Humphry Davy studied its effects and gave it the popular name. Dentists and surgeons use it mixed with oxygen as a mild anaesthetic and pain-killer, and it is also the propellant in whipped-cream cans. In the laboratory it is made by gently heating ammonium nitrate. It is a greenhouse gas too, and it damages the ozone layer. A is wrong because NO is nitric oxide, a colourless gas that turns brown in air. B is wrong because N2O3 is dinitrogen trioxide, a blue liquid at low temperature. D is wrong because NO2 is nitrogen dioxide, the reddish-brown, poisonous gas seen in vehicle smoke and acid rain. Exam tip: laughing gas = nitrous oxide = N2O, discovered by Priestley, used as a dental anaesthetic.

The correct answer is B, SF6. The name itself gives the formula: 'hexa' means six, so sulphur hexafluoride has one sulphur atom joined to six fluorine atoms, SF6. The molecule is octahedral in shape, with the six fluorine atoms arranged symmetrically around the sulphur. SF6 is a colourless, odourless, non-flammable and very unreactive gas, about five times heavier than air. Because it does not conduct electricity, it is used as an insulating gas inside high-voltage circuit breakers and switchgear. It is also one of the strongest greenhouse gases known, with a global warming potential thousands of times that of carbon dioxide, and it is listed under the Kyoto Protocol. A is wrong because S2F6 would need two sulphur atoms, which the name does not say. C is wrong because SF2 is sulphur difluoride, with only two fluorine atoms. D is wrong because S6F reverses the numbers and is not a real compound. Exam tip: mono 1, di 2, tri 3, tetra 4, penta 5, hexa 6; SF6 = one sulphur, six fluorine, used in electrical switchgear.

The correct answer is B, Darjeeling Hills. The Mahananda rises in the Darjeeling hills of West Bengal, near Kurseong, at a height of about 2,100 metres. It flows down through Siliguri, enters Bihar near Kishanganj, and then passes into Bangladesh, where it joins the Ganga (called the Padma there). It is a left-bank tributary of the Ganga, and its own tributaries include the Balason and the Mechi. The Mahananda Wildlife Sanctuary near Siliguri is named after it, and the river is a reason why Siliguri and the 'chicken's neck' corridor are so important for connecting the North-East. A is wrong because the Chota Nagpur Plateau gives rise to the Damodar and Subarnarekha, not the Mahananda. C is wrong because the Kaimur hills are near the Son valley in Bihar and Madhya Pradesh. D is wrong because Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand feeds the Rishi Ganga and the Alaknanda system. Exam tip: Mahananda = Darjeeling hills, flows through Siliguri, left-bank tributary of the Ganga; Damodar and Subarnarekha = Chota Nagpur.

The correct answer is A, Tamil Nadu. The Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon strikes the Western Ghats first and drops most of its moisture on the windward western slopes, so the land on the eastern, leeward side gets little rain. This dry leeward zone is the rain shadow, and Tamil Nadu lies in it, which is why it receives its main rain later, from the retreating north-east monsoon in October to December. A famous local example is Mumbai getting far more monsoon rain than Pune, which lies just behind the Ghats. B is wrong because Gujarat is on the windward side and gets direct rain from the Arabian Sea branch. C is wrong because Goa lies on the west coast in front of the Ghats and is one of the wettest states. D is wrong because Kerala is where the southwest monsoon first arrives in India, around 1 June, and it gets very heavy rain. Exam tip: the Western Ghats block the Arabian Sea branch; west side wet (Kerala, Goa), east side dry (Tamil Nadu), which is why Tamil Nadu depends on the north-east monsoon.

The correct answer is B, Bindusara. Bindusara was the son of Chandragupta Maurya and became the second ruler of the Mauryan Empire in about 297 BCE, ruling till about 273 BCE. Greek writers called him Amitrochates, from the Sanskrit 'Amitraghata', which means slayer of enemies. He kept up friendly ties with the Greek kingdoms of West Asia, and the Greek ambassador Deimachus lived at his court at Pataliputra. He is said to have extended the empire into the Deccan, and his son Ashoka served as viceroy at Ujjain before taking the throne. A is wrong because Kumaragupta I was a Gupta ruler of the fifth century CE, remembered for founding Nalanda. C is wrong because Ashoka was Bindusara's son and succeeded him in about 273 BCE, being crowned in 268 BCE. D is wrong because Kanishka was a Kushan king who ruled from 78 CE, the year the Saka era begins. Exam tip: the Mauryan order is Chandragupta (322 BCE), Bindusara (297 BCE), Ashoka (273 BCE); father, son, grandson.

The correct answer is B, Mughal's Rule in India. On 21 April 1526 Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi, the last Sultan of Delhi, at Panipat in present-day Haryana, and this victory ended the Delhi Sultanate and started Mughal rule in India. Babur's army was much smaller, but he won with field guns handled by the Ottoman experts Ustad Ali and Mustafa and with the 'tulughma' tactic of encircling the enemy from the flanks. Ibrahim Lodi died on the battlefield, the only Delhi Sultan to die in battle. Panipat saw two more decisive battles: 1556, when Akbar's general Bairam Khan defeated Hemu, and 1761, when Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated the Marathas. A is wrong because the French never ruled India; their power ended with the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760. C is wrong because British East India Company rule began after the Battle of Plassey in 1757. D is wrong because the Delhi Sultanate began in 1206 with Qutb-ud-din Aibak and actually ended at Panipat in 1526. Exam tip: Panipat 1526 Babur beats Ibrahim Lodi; 1556 Akbar beats Hemu; 1761 Abdali beats the Marathas.

The correct answer is A, Articles 74 and 75. These two Articles create the Council of Ministers that actually runs the Union government. Article 74 says there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President, and the President acts on that advice. Article 75 says the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, the other ministers are appointed on the Prime Minister's advice, the Council is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, and its size cannot exceed 15 per cent of the Lok Sabha strength, a limit added by the 91st Amendment in 2003. The matching Articles for the states are 163 and 164. B is wrong because Article 71 is about disputes in presidential elections and Article 72 about the President's power of pardon. C is wrong because Articles 79 and 80 deal with the constitution of Parliament and the composition of the Rajya Sabha. D is wrong because Article 76 creates the Attorney-General and Article 77 covers the conduct of government business. Exam tip: Centre 74-75, states 163-164; collective responsibility is to the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is C, Article 84. This is the Article that lists who is qualified to be a member of Parliament. Under Article 84 a person must be a citizen of India, must take an oath before a person authorised by the Election Commission, and must be at least 30 years old for the Rajya Sabha or 25 years old for the Lok Sabha. Parliament can add other qualifications by law, which it did through the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Remember the pair: qualifications are in Article 84, disqualifications are in Article 102. A is wrong because Article 105 deals with the powers and privileges of the Houses and their members. B is wrong because Article 85 covers the sessions of Parliament, prorogation and dissolution. D is wrong because Article 80 gives the composition of the Rajya Sabha. Exam tip: 84 for qualification, 102 for disqualification, 25 years for the Lok Sabha and 30 years for the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is D, inflation. Inflation is a sustained rise in the general price level, measured in India by the CPI and the WPI. It is fought in three ways: monetary measures by the RBI such as raising the repo rate or CRR, fiscal measures such as higher taxes and lower government spending, and direct or administrative measures. Price control, rationing through the Public Distribution System and stock limits under the Essential Commodities Act 1955 are the direct measures: they cap what sellers may charge and how much each family may buy, so that scarce goods are shared and hoarding is checked. Option A is wrong because reflation is the deliberate effort to push prices and demand up after a slump, the opposite aim. Option B is wrong because disinflation is only a slowing of the inflation rate, not a problem that needs rationing. Option C is wrong because deflation is a fall in the general price level, when governments spend more rather than control prices. Exam tip: inflation = prices rise, deflation = prices fall, disinflation = prices rise more slowly, reflation = pushing prices up again.

The correct answer is A, Mizo Hills. The Lushai Hills are the old British name for the hills of present-day Mizoram, home of the Mizo (Lushai) people. The Lushai Hills district of Assam was renamed the Mizo Hills district in 1954, became the Union Territory of Mizoram in 1972 and the 23rd State on 20 February 1987 under the 53rd Amendment. These hills form the southern part of the Purvanchal, the eastern extension of the Himalayas along the Myanmar border, and their highest point is Phawngpui, the Blue Mountain, at 2,157 metres. Option B is wrong because the Patkai Hills lie further north on the Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland border with Myanmar. Option C is wrong because the Khasi Hills are in Meghalaya, with Shillong, Cherrapunji and Mawsynram. Option D is wrong because the Naga Hills are in Nagaland, with Mount Saramati as the highest peak. Exam tip: Purvanchal from north to south runs Patkai, Naga, Manipur and Mizo (Lushai) hills; the Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills of Meghalaya are a separate plateau block.

The correct answer is B, Parantaka I. Parantaka I (907 to 955 CE), son of Aditya I, crushed the Pandya king Maravarman Rajasimha II and his Sri Lankan allies at the battle of Vellur, or Vellore, around 915 CE, and took the title Maduraikonda, 'captor of Madurai'. His reign is also remembered for the Uttaramerur inscriptions of 919 and 921 CE, which describe how village assemblies were elected by lot, and for covering the Nataraja shrine at Chidambaram with gold. Late in his rule he lost the battle of Takkolam (949 CE) to the Rashtrakuta king Krishna III, where his son Rajaditya was killed. Option A is wrong because Rajaraja I (985 to 1014 CE) came later and is known for the Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur. Option C is wrong because Rajendra I led the Ganga expedition and took the title Gangaikonda Chola. Option D is wrong because Vijayalaya founded the imperial Chola line by capturing Thanjavur around 850 CE, before this battle. Exam tip: Vellur = Parantaka I (Maduraikonda), Takkolam = Chola defeat by Krishna III.

The correct answer is A, Article 11. Part II of the Constitution, Articles 5 to 11, deals with citizenship. Articles 5 to 10 only settled who was a citizen when the Constitution commenced on 26 January 1950; Article 11 then hands the whole subject to Parliament, giving it full power to make any law on acquisition and termination of citizenship. Using this power Parliament passed the Citizenship Act 1955, which lists five ways of acquiring citizenship: birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. India provides single citizenship, and citizenship is a Union List subject (Entry 17). Option B is wrong because Article 5 defines citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution by domicile. Option C is wrong because Article 8 covers persons of Indian origin living outside India. Option D is wrong because Article 6 covers migrants who came from Pakistan. Exam tip: Articles 5 to 10 = who was a citizen in 1950, Article 11 = Parliament's power, Citizenship Act = 1955.

The correct answer is B, 1973. Project Tiger was launched on 1 April 1973 by the Government of India under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, from Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, to save the Bengal tiger and its habitat. It began with nine tiger reserves, including Corbett, Kanha, Bandipur, Ranthambore, Sundarbans and Manas, and the network has since grown to more than fifty. Each reserve has a core area free of human activity and a buffer zone around it. Since 2005 the project is run by the National Tiger Conservation Authority, a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, and the tiger census is done every four years. A, 1985, is not linked to the tiger programme. C, 1972, is the year of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, the law that came a year before the project and is often confused with it. D, 1970, is when India banned tiger hunting. Exam tip: 1970 hunting ban, 1972 Wildlife Act, 1973 Project Tiger, 1992 Project Elephant.

The correct answer is C, Godavari river. The Wardha rises in the Satpura range near Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh, flows south-east through Vidarbha and meets the Wainganga; the combined stream is called the Pranhita, which is the largest tributary of the Godavari and joins it at Kaleshwaram in Telangana. So the Wardha reaches the Godavari through the Pranhita, and both names appear in exams. The Godavari is the longest river of peninsular India, about 1,465 km, rising at Trimbakeshwar near Nashik and ending in the Bay of Bengal. A, Mahanadi, is fed by the Seonath, Ib, Tel and Ong, not the Wardha. B, Tapi, receives the Purna, Girna and Panzara. D, Narmada, has tributaries like the Tawa and Hiran. Exam tip: Wardha + Wainganga = Pranhita, and Pranhita, Indravati, Manjra all feed the Godavari, the "Dakshin Ganga".