SSC 2023 Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is D, Sambhar. Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan is a saltwater lake, in fact the largest inland salt lake in India, so it is the odd one out. It lies near Jaipur, and its brine has been used to make salt for centuries. It was declared a Ramsar wetland in 1990 and draws flamingos in winter. Most salt lakes in India lie in dry Rajasthan, where evaporation is high and the water does not drain out to the sea. A is wrong because Bhimtal in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand is a freshwater lake. B is wrong because Loktak in Manipur is the largest freshwater lake in north-east India, famous for its floating 'phumdis' and the Keibul Lamjao National Park. C is wrong because Barapani, also called Umiam Lake, near Shillong in Meghalaya, is a freshwater reservoir. Exam tip: Sambhar is India's largest inland salt lake, while Chilika in Odisha is the largest brackish-water lagoon.

The correct answer is C, western disturbance. Western disturbances are low-pressure systems that start over the Mediterranean Sea and are carried east towards India by the westerly jet stream in winter. They bring light rain to Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh, and snowfall to Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. This small winter rain, locally called 'mahawat', is very useful for rabi crops, especially wheat. A is wrong because the south-west monsoon brings rain from June to September, not in winter. B is wrong because the north-east monsoon gives winter rain mainly to the Tamil Nadu coast, not to the north-west. D is wrong because the retreating monsoon of October and November mostly affects the east coast and the south, and brings cyclones in the Bay of Bengal. Exam tip: winter rain in the north-west comes from western disturbances from the Mediterranean; winter rain in Tamil Nadu comes from the north-east monsoon.

The correct answer is A, Seleucus Nicator. Seleucus, a general of Alexander who came to rule the eastern part of his empire, sent Megasthenes as his ambassador to Chandragupta Maurya's court at Pataliputra. This followed their war around 305 BCE, after which Seleucus gave up the regions around Kandahar and Kabul and received 500 war elephants in return. Megasthenes wrote 'Indica', a description of Mauryan India, its capital and its people; the book itself is lost and survives only in quotations by later Greek writers such as Strabo and Arrian. B is wrong because Amyntas II was an early king of Macedon, long before the Mauryas. C is wrong because Amyntas III was a Macedonian king and the father of Philip II. D is wrong because Philip II was the king of Macedon and the father of Alexander the Great, and he died in 336 BCE. Exam tip: Seleucus sent Megasthenes to Chandragupta, and Megasthenes wrote 'Indica'.

The correct answer is D, Jyotiba Phule. Jyotirao (Jyotiba) Phule founded the Satya-Shodhak Samaj, the 'Society of Seekers of Truth', on 24 September 1873 in Pune. The Samaj fought caste discrimination and worked for the education and rights of Shudras, Dalits and women, without the help of priests. In the same year Phule published his book 'Gulamgiri' (Slavery), which he dedicated to those in America who fought to end slavery. He and his wife had opened a school for girls in Pune in 1848. A is wrong because Govindrao Phule was Jyotiba's father, from the Mali community. B is wrong because Gopal Hari Deshmukh, known as 'Lokahitawadi', was a reformer famous for his letters called 'Shatapatre'. C is wrong because Savitribai Phule was Jyotiba's wife and India's first woman teacher; she worked with the Samaj but did not found it. Exam tip: Satya-Shodhak Samaj, 1873, Pune, Jyotiba Phule, book 'Gulamgiri'.

The correct answer is B, 42nd. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 changed so many parts of the Constitution that it is called the 'Mini Constitution'. It was passed during the Emergency under Indira Gandhi's government on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. It added the words Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble, added the Fundamental Duties in Part IVA (Article 51A), and moved five subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List. A is wrong because the 38th Amendment, 1975 put the President's satisfaction in declaring an Emergency beyond court review. C is wrong because the 40th Amendment, 1976 dealt with laws placed in the Ninth Schedule and with India's maritime zones. D is wrong because the 44th Amendment, 1978 undid many 42nd Amendment changes and removed the Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights. Exam tip: the 42nd (1976) is the Mini Constitution; the 44th (1978) is the correction that followed it.

The correct answer is A, Bharatanatyam. Bharatanatyam grew out of Sadir Attam, also called Dasiattam, the temple dance performed by devadasis in Tamil Nadu. In the early 19th century the Tanjore Quartet, four brothers at the Thanjavur court, arranged its items into the order still followed in a recital. In the 1930s the dance was revived and renamed Bharatanatyam, with E. Krishna Iyer and Rukmini Devi Arundale, who founded Kalakshetra in Chennai in 1936, leading the change. It is known for its half-sitting stance called aramandi and is linked with the Natya Shastra of Bharata Muni. B is wrong because Kuchipudi comes from the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh and was shaped by Siddhendra Yogi. C is wrong because Mohiniyattam, the dance of the enchantress, is a graceful solo dance of Kerala. D is wrong because Kathakali is Kerala's dance-drama with heavy make-up and costumes, which grew out of Ramanattam and Krishnanattam. Exam tip: Sadir or Dasiattam became Bharatanatyam; Rukmini Devi and Kalakshetra are the names tied to its revival.

The correct answer is D, 1866. The German zoologist Ernst Haeckel coined the word 'Oekologie' in 1866 in his book Generelle Morphologie der Organismen. He built it from the Greek oikos, meaning house or household, and logos, meaning study, so ecology is the study of living things in their home, their relations with each other and with their surroundings. That is why the question speaks of the 'economies' of living forms, since economy comes from the same oikos. Haeckel was a strong supporter of Darwin and also gave biology words such as phylum. A related date that papers test is 1935, when the British ecologist A. G. Tansley coined the term 'ecosystem'. A is wrong because 1888 has no link with the word; by then it had been in use for over twenty years. B is wrong because 1884 is also too late and is not a date tied to ecology's naming. C is wrong because 1887 is likewise unconnected with Haeckel's coinage. Exam tip: ecology by Haeckel in 1866, ecosystem by Tansley in 1935.

The correct answer is B, Insat-1B. It was the first working satellite of the Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system, carried to orbit by the US Space Shuttle Challenger in August 1983. INSAT-1B was a multipurpose satellite: its transponders gave national television coverage, telephone links and weather pictures from one spot in geostationary orbit, about 36,000 km above the equator. It made nationwide Doordarshan broadcasts possible and began the INSAT series that still serves communication and meteorology. Its predecessor INSAT-1A, launched in 1982, failed early, which is why 1B is remembered as the real start. A is wrong because Bhaskara-I, launched in 1979 on a Soviet rocket, was an experimental earth-observation satellite, not a geostationary broadcaster. C is wrong because GSAT-7, launched in 2013, is the Indian Navy's dedicated communication satellite, often called Rukmini. D is wrong because RISAT-1, launched in 2012 on a PSLV, is a radar imaging satellite for earth observation. Exam tip: INSAT = communication and weather in geostationary orbit; Bhaskara and RISAT = observing the earth.

The correct answer is B, KC Neogy. Kshitish Chandra Neogy chaired the First Finance Commission, set up by the President in November 1951, which gave its report in 1952 for the period 1952 to 1957. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280. It is formed every five years, or earlier if needed, with a chairman and four other members, and it recommends how the taxes collected by the Union are shared with the States and how grants-in-aid are given. The qualifications of its members are laid down in the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act of 1951. Neogy had earlier been a member of the Constituent Assembly and a minister in Nehru's first Cabinet. A is wrong because Ashok Kumar Chanda chaired the Third Finance Commission. C is wrong because K Santhanam chaired the Second Finance Commission. D is wrong because PV Rajamannar chaired the Fourth Finance Commission. Exam tip: the first four chairmen in order are Neogy, Santhanam, Chanda, Rajamannar; Article 280 is the Finance Commission article.

The correct answer is D, Progressive. In a progressive tax the rate rises as income rises, so each extra rupee is taxed at a higher rate than the rupees before it. The marginal rate is the tax on the last rupee earned, and the average rate is total tax divided by total income. When every new slab carries a higher rate, the marginal rate stays above the average. India's income tax, with slabs rising from nil to 30 percent, is the everyday example. A is wrong because a digressive tax is only mildly progressive: its rate rises slowly and then levels off at a flat rate, so it is treated as a diluted form, not the standard case. B is wrong because a proportional tax charges the same rate at every income, so the marginal and average rates are equal. C is wrong because in a regressive tax the rate falls as income rises, so the marginal rate is below the average. Exam tip: marginal above average means progressive, equal means proportional, below means regressive.

The correct answer is A, Yamuna. All three rivers join the Yamuna, the longest tributary of the Ganga, which rises at the Yamunotri glacier in Uttarakhand and meets the Ganga at Prayagraj. The Tons is its largest tributary and joins it in the hills of Uttarakhand. The Hindon rises in the Shivaliks near Saharanpur and joins it near Greater Noida. The Chambal rises near Mhow in Madhya Pradesh, flows through the Kota region of Rajasthan with its famous ravines, and joins the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. Other tributaries to remember are the Betwa, Ken and Sind from the south. B is wrong because the Mahanadi flows east through Chhattisgarh and Odisha and is fed by rivers like the Seonath, Hasdeo and Ib. C is wrong because the Kaveri of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu takes the Hemavati, Kabini and Bhavani. D is wrong because the Tapi flows west from Multai in Madhya Pradesh to the Gulf of Khambhat, with the Purna as a tributary. Exam tip: Yamuna tributaries from the south are Chambal, Sind, Betwa, Ken; from the north, Tons and Hindon.

The correct answer is B, Lord Cornwallis. As Governor-General from 1786 to 1793 he turned the Company's corrupt trading staff into a paid, rule-bound civil service. He raised salaries, banned private trade and presents, and set up a graded service promoted by seniority, which is why he is called the father of the civil services in India. He also kept all higher posts for Europeans, which is the 'Europeanised' part of the question. His Cornwallis Code of 1793 separated revenue collection from judicial work, and the same year he introduced the Permanent Settlement of land revenue in Bengal. A is wrong because Lord Canning is remembered as the last Governor-General and first Viceroy, who handled the Revolt of 1857. C is wrong because Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of Bengal under the Regulating Act of 1773, laid early foundations but did not build a professional service. D is wrong because Lord Dalhousie is known for the Doctrine of Lapse, railways and the telegraph. Exam tip: Cornwallis 1793 means civil services, Cornwallis Code and Permanent Settlement together.

The correct answer is B, 1814. Raja Ram Mohan Roy set up the Atmiya Sabha, the 'Society of Friends', in Calcutta in 1814. It was a small circle for discussion that preached one formless God and attacked idol worship, caste rigidity, sati and child marriage. It was the first step of a chain that papers love to test: Atmiya Sabha 1814, then Brahmo Sabha 1828, which later became the Brahmo Samaj, then the ban on sati by Lord William Bentinck in 1829, which Roy strongly backed. A is wrong because Roy died at Bristol in England in 1833, so nothing he founded dates from 1845. C is wrong because 1839 is the year Debendranath Tagore founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha, which later joined the Brahmo movement. D is wrong because 1828 is the year of the Brahmo Sabha, Roy's second and larger body, not the Atmiya Sabha. Exam tip: Roy's timeline is Atmiya Sabha 1814, Brahmo Sabha 1828, sati banned 1829, died 1833.

The correct answer is B, Indus river. Mohenjodaro lies on the right bank of the Indus in Larkana district of Sindh, now in Pakistan. It was excavated in 1922 by R. D. Banerji, and its name means 'mound of the dead'. It was the largest planned city of the civilisation, and papers ask about its finds: the Great Bath, the Great Granary, the bronze dancing girl, the bearded priest-king and the Pashupati seal. Remember the sister site too: Harappa, the first city dug up in 1921 by Daya Ram Sahni, stands on the Ravi. A is wrong because the Jhelum flows through Kashmir and Punjab and meets the Indus system far north of Sindh. C is wrong because the Ghaghara is a Himalayan tributary of the Ganga in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, far east of the Harappan heartland. D is wrong because the Beas is a Punjab tributary of the Sutlej, not the river at Mohenjodaro. Exam tip: Mohenjodaro on Indus, Harappa on Ravi, Lothal on Bhogava, Kalibangan on Ghaggar, Ropar on Sutlej.

The correct answer is D, Governor. Article 361 gives this personal immunity to only two offices, the President of India and the Governor of a State. While in office, no criminal proceedings can be started or continued against them, and no court can order their arrest or imprisonment. A civil case about their personal acts can be filed only after giving two months' written notice. The logic is that both are formal heads who act on ministers' advice, so the ministers answer for the decisions. A is wrong because the Chief Minister heads the state government and can be sued or prosecuted like any citizen; he has no protection under Article 361. B is wrong because a Secretary is a civil servant whose official orders can be challenged in court. C is wrong because the Prime Minister, the real head of the Union executive, enjoys no such immunity either. Exam tip: Article 361 protects only the President and the Governors; Prime Minister and Chief Ministers are not covered.

The correct answer is A, Vice President. Article 64 makes the Vice President of India the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States, the Rajya Sabha. Because he chairs a House he is not a member of, he has no ordinary vote and casts only a deciding vote when there is a tie. He draws his salary as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, not as Vice President, and while he acts as President he stops presiding over the House. The Deputy Chairman, by contrast, is elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its own members under Article 89. B is wrong because the Prime Minister is usually a member of the Lok Sabha and leads the government, not the Rajya Sabha's proceedings. C is wrong because the President is a part of Parliament under Article 79 but is a member of neither House and presides over neither. D is wrong because the Attorney General may speak in either House under Article 88 but cannot vote or preside. Exam tip: Lok Sabha has a Speaker elected by members; Rajya Sabha has the Vice President as ex-officio Chairman.

The correct answer is D, Habeas corpus. It orders the person or authority holding someone to produce that person before the court, and if the detention is found unlawful the person is set free. The Latin words mean 'to have the body'. The Supreme Court issues writs under Article 32 and the High Courts under Article 226, and there are five of them: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Habeas corpus is the strongest guard of personal liberty and, unlike most writs, it can be issued against a private person as well as against the State. A is wrong because prohibition is sent by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to stop it acting beyond its jurisdiction. B is wrong because mandamus, 'we command', orders a public official to perform a legal duty he has failed to do. C is wrong because quo warranto, 'by what authority', asks a person to show his right to hold a public office. Exam tip: illegal detention means habeas corpus; Article 32 for the Supreme Court, Article 226 for the High Courts.

The correct answer is Nehruvian. The Constitution does not classify the Directive Principles, but scholars group them into three categories: Socialist (such as Articles 38, 39, 41, 42 and 43, aimed at a welfare state and economic justice), Gandhian (such as Article 40 on village panchayats, Article 43 on cottage industries, Article 47 on prohibition and Article 48 on protecting cattle) and Liberal-intellectual (such as Article 44 on a Uniform Civil Code, Article 48A on the environment, Article 50 on separating the judiciary and Article 51 on international peace).

There is no "Nehruvian" category, even though Jawaharlal Nehru's ideas of planning and a mixed economy influenced the socialist principles. That is exactly why the option sounds believable. When the options list three of the recognised categories and one name that sounds historical, the odd one out is the answer. A quick check: the three real groups are Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal-intellectual; no category is named after any leader other than Gandhi.

The correct answer is Article 44. It says: "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India." A uniform civil code would replace the separate personal laws of different religious communities on marriage, divorce, inheritance and adoption with one common law for all citizens. Being a Directive Principle, it cannot be enforced in court, and the Supreme Court has more than once urged the government to act on it. Goa has long had a common civil code, and Uttarakhand passed its own Uniform Civil Code in 2024.

The other options are Directive Principles on different subjects: Article 39 is about livelihood, the distribution of resources and equal pay; Article 40 is about village panchayats; and Article 50 is about separating the judiciary from the executive. Remember too that the Uniform Civil Code is usually classed as a liberal-intellectual principle, not a Gandhian one, a point examiners also test.

The correct answer is C, Kathakali. Kathakali, which means 'story play', is the classical dance-drama of Kerala, performed traditionally by men, in which stories from the Ramayana and Mahabharata are told through hand gestures (mudras), eye movements and facial expressions. Its most striking feature is the heavy, colourful makeup and towering headgear: green (pacha) for noble heroes, a red-streaked face (kathi) for villains, and beard (thadi) types for demons and monkeys. The vigorous body training comes from Kalaripayattu, Kerala's ancient martial art. Performances are accompanied by the chenda and maddalam drums and go on through the night. A is wrong because Mohiniyattam, also from Kerala, is a gentle solo dance by women, the 'dance of the enchantress', with simple makeup and no masks. B is wrong because Kuchipudi is the classical dance of Andhra Pradesh. D is wrong because Odissi belongs to Odisha and is known for its tribhangi posture. Exam tip: Kerala has two classical dances, Kathakali (masks, makeup, martial vigour) and Mohiniyattam (graceful, feminine).