Skip to content
GK24
Prime

SSC CGL GK Questions 2026

Static GK decides the General Awareness score in SSC CGL. Of the 25 questions in Tier-I and the 25 in Tier-II Paper-I, most come from Indian Polity, History, Geography, the Economy and General Science, the areas the CGL 2026 notice lists as History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy and Scientific Research relating to India and its neighbouring countries. Polity questions ask about articles, parts and schedules of the Constitution, amendments, the President, Parliament, the Supreme Court and constitutional bodies. History covers the Indus Valley, the Mauryas and Guptas, the Delhi Sultanate and Mughals, and the freedom struggle from 1857 to 1947. Geography asks about rivers, soils, climate, national parks, minerals and world physical features. The Economy part asks about budget terms, the RBI, banking and basic concepts. General Science is school-level Physics, Chemistry and Biology. This page holds GK24's topic-wise GK notes for SSC CGL, written as short facts and tables so a topic can be revised in one sitting. Read a topic, then solve its previous-year questions and quiz on this site to check what you retained.

SSC CGL GK Questions with Answers

Q4041.Science & TechnologyMedium

C-DOT, which signed the agreement for the new Centre of Excellence, works under which ministry?

  1. A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  2. B.Ministry of Communications
  3. C.Ministry of Education
  4. D.Ministry of Science and Technology
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Ministry of Communications

The Centre for Development of Telematics, or C-DOT, is the research and development centre of the Department of Telecommunications, which is a department of the Ministry of Communications, and it is in that capacity that it signed the agreement for a Centre of Excellence at IIT (BHU), Varanasi.

Q4043.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following pairs : Famous place — Region 1. Bodhgaya — Baghelkhand 2. Khajuraho — Bundelkhand 3. Shirdi — Vidarbha 4. Nasik (Nashik) — Malwa 5. Tirupati — Rayalaseema Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.2, 3, 4 and 5
  3. C.2 and 5 only
  4. D.1, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2 and 5 only

Khajuraho lies in Bundelkhand and Tirupati in Rayalaseema; the other three are placed in the wrong regions. Khajuraho, famous for its Chandela temples and a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is in Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh, in the Bundelkhand region the Chandelas ruled, so pair 2 is correct.

Q4044.Awards & HonoursAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards : 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are incorrect, so all three are 'not correct'. Statement 1 is wrong because in Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1995) the Supreme Court held that the Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are not titles within the meaning of Article 18(1), which abolishes titles; they are honours…

Q4045.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IEasy

The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War

  1. A.India should be granted complete independence.
  2. B.India should be partitioned into two before granting independence
  3. C.India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth
  4. D.India should be given Dominion status
Show answer
Correct answer: D. India should be given Dominion status

The Cripps Mission of March 1942 offered India Dominion status after the Second World War, not full independence. Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of Churchill's War Cabinet, came as Japan advanced in South-East Asia.

Q4046.Indian HistoryAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IMedium

What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

  1. A.Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto
  2. B.Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government
  3. C.Foundation of Muslim League
  4. D.Aurobindo Ghosh's inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government

The Surat split of December 1907 came from a basic difference in method.

Q4047.GeographyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IEasy

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

  1. A.India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
  2. B.India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
  3. C.India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
  4. D.Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

Chabahar gives India a sea-and-land route to Afghanistan and Central Asia that bypasses Pakistan. The port lies on the Makran coast of Iran's Sistan-Baluchestan province, on the Gulf of Oman, outside the Strait of Hormuz.

Q4048.Sports GKAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2023, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years 2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. A.Only one
  2. B.Only two
  3. C.Only three
  4. D.All four
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Only two

Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 2 and 4 describe other awards. The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, India's highest sporting honour, is given for the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over the previous four years, so pair 1 is correct.

Q4049.Science & TechnologyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2016, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements : The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO 1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission 2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA 3. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only

Mangalyaan is the popular name of ISRO's Mars Orbiter Mission, and India reached Mars orbit on its first attempt, but it was not the second country to do so.

Q4050.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2019, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements : 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

Statement 1 is the definition of purchasing power parity, while statement 2 understates India's position. A PPP exchange rate is the rate at which the currency of one country would have to be converted into that of another to buy the same basket of goods and services in both.

Q4051.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IEasy

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

  1. A.A Democratic Republic
  2. B.A Sovereign Democratic Republic
  3. C.A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
  4. D.A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Show answer
Correct answer: B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic

When the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, its Preamble declared India a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

Q4052.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IMedium

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. 2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. 3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

The main and certain advantage of GST is that it subsumes many indirect taxes into one and creates a common national market.

Q4054.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IMedium

Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

  1. A.the Right to Equality
  2. B.the Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. C.the Right to Freedom
  4. D.the Concept of Welfare
Show answer
Correct answer: B. the Directive Principles of State Policy

Article 39(c), one of the Directive Principles in Part IV, directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Q4055.Reports & IndicesHard

Under the revised design, how many Second Stage Strata will there be and how many households will be canvassed in each First Stage Unit?

  1. A.Four rural and five urban strata, with 14 households per First Stage Unit
  2. B.Five rural and four urban strata, with 12 households per First Stage Unit
  3. C.Three rural and three urban strata, with 16 households per First Stage Unit
  4. D.Four rural and four urban strata, with 15 households per First Stage Unit
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Four rural and five urban strata, with 14 households per First Stage Unit

A new Second Stage Stratum based on digital platform work is being introduced because experience showed that the earlier arrangement did not capture an adequate number of such workers, while the rest of the stratum structure and composition is retained.

Q4056.Reports & IndicesMedium

From which month will the modified sampling design and schedule of the Periodic Labour Force Survey take effect?

  1. A.January 2025
  2. B.January 2026
  3. C.January 2027
  4. D.April 2027
Show answer
Correct answer: C. January 2027

The modified sampling design, the changed estimation procedure and the revised schedule all take effect from that month, when fresh samples for the two-year period 2027-2028, known as Panel 6, will be drawn from an updated sampling frame.

Q4057.Reports & IndicesEasy

Which body conducts the Periodic Labour Force Survey in India?

  1. A.The Reserve Bank of India
  2. B.The National Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  3. C.NITI Aayog
  4. D.The Ministry of Labour and Employment
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The National Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

That office has been conducting the Periodic Labour Force Survey since 2017, and the survey has steadily widened to meet the demand for labour market statistics that arrive sooner and can be broken down further.

Q4058.DefenceMedium

How many countries will send experts to the Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue 2026, and how many thematic sessions does it have?

  1. A.12 countries and three sessions
  2. B.18 countries and five sessions
  3. C.25 countries and seven sessions
  4. D.18 countries and seven sessions
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 18 countries and five sessions

Maritime practitioners, scientists, academicians, policymakers and experts from 18 countries across the Indo-Pacific will contribute to the dialogue, and the conference has five professional thematic sessions spread over its three days.

Q4059.DefenceHard

At which summit did Prime Minister Narendra Modi announce the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative?

  1. A.The 14th East Asia Summit in Bangkok
  2. B.The 14th G20 Summit in Osaka
  3. C.The 13th East Asia Summit in Singapore
  4. D.The 15th East Asia Summit in Hanoi
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The 14th East Asia Summit in Bangkok

The initiative sets out seven interconnected maritime lines of thrust, and successive editions of the Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue have taken up selected dimensions of those lines of thrust.

Q4060.DefenceMedium

What is the theme of the Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue 2026 to be held by the Indian Navy?

  1. A.Maritime Security and Blue Economy
  2. B.Science, Technology and Academic Cooperation in the Indo-Pacific
  3. C.Collaborative Approaches to Ocean Governance
  4. D.Powering the Global South
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Science, Technology and Academic Cooperation in the Indo-Pacific

The Indian Navy will hold the Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue in New Delhi from 3 to 5 November 2026 on this theme, with the National Maritime Foundation as the principal organiser, and experts from 18 countries of the region taking part.