RRB NTPC GK Questions 2026

The correct answer is B, Parantaka I. Parantaka I (907 to 955 CE), son of Aditya I, crushed the Pandya king Maravarman Rajasimha II and his Sri Lankan allies at the battle of Vellur, or Vellore, around 915 CE, and took the title Maduraikonda, 'captor of Madurai'. His reign is also remembered for the Uttaramerur inscriptions of 919 and 921 CE, which describe how village assemblies were elected by lot, and for covering the Nataraja shrine at Chidambaram with gold. Late in his rule he lost the battle of Takkolam (949 CE) to the Rashtrakuta king Krishna III, where his son Rajaditya was killed. Option A is wrong because Rajaraja I (985 to 1014 CE) came later and is known for the Brihadisvara temple at Thanjavur. Option C is wrong because Rajendra I led the Ganga expedition and took the title Gangaikonda Chola. Option D is wrong because Vijayalaya founded the imperial Chola line by capturing Thanjavur around 850 CE, before this battle. Exam tip: Vellur = Parantaka I (Maduraikonda), Takkolam = Chola defeat by Krishna III.

The correct answer is B, Pushyamitra. Pushyamitra Shunga founded the Shunga dynasty in about 185 BCE after killing Brihadratha, the last Mauryan king, while reviewing the army; he was the Mauryan commander-in-chief. The Shungas ruled from Pataliputra, and later Vidisha, for about 112 years, and Pushyamitra performed two Ashvamedha sacrifices, a sign of the Brahmanical revival after Ashoka's Buddhist patronage. The Bharhut stupa railings and the enlargement of the Sanchi stupa belong to this period, and Patanjali, author of the Mahabhashya, lived at his court. The last Shunga king, Devabhuti, was killed by his minister Vasudeva Kanva, who started the Kanva dynasty. Option A is wrong because Porus was the Punjab king who fought Alexander at the Hydaspes in 326 BCE. Option C is wrong because Bindusara was the second Mauryan emperor, son of Chandragupta. Option D is wrong because Ashoka was a Mauryan, not a Shunga. Exam tip: Mauryas end with Brihadratha, Shungas begin with Pushyamitra (185 BCE), Kanvas begin with Vasudeva.

The correct answer is A, Article 11. Part II of the Constitution, Articles 5 to 11, deals with citizenship. Articles 5 to 10 only settled who was a citizen when the Constitution commenced on 26 January 1950; Article 11 then hands the whole subject to Parliament, giving it full power to make any law on acquisition and termination of citizenship. Using this power Parliament passed the Citizenship Act 1955, which lists five ways of acquiring citizenship: birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. India provides single citizenship, and citizenship is a Union List subject (Entry 17). Option B is wrong because Article 5 defines citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution by domicile. Option C is wrong because Article 8 covers persons of Indian origin living outside India. Option D is wrong because Article 6 covers migrants who came from Pakistan. Exam tip: Articles 5 to 10 = who was a citizen in 1950, Article 11 = Parliament's power, Citizenship Act = 1955.

The correct answer is B, Article 89. Article 89 covers the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States. Clause (1) makes the Vice-President of India the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and clause (2) says the Council shall choose one of its own members as Deputy Chairman, and choose another whenever that office falls vacant. Article 90 deals with the Deputy Chairman's vacation of office, resignation and removal, and Article 93 is the matching provision for the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The point setters test is that the Chairman is not a member of the House while the Deputy Chairman always is. Option A is wrong because Article 14 guarantees equality before the law. Option C is wrong because Article 377 is a transitional provision about the Comptroller and Auditor-General. Option D is wrong because Article 370 dealt with the special status of Jammu and Kashmir. Exam tip: 89 = Rajya Sabha Chairman and Deputy Chairman, 93 = Lok Sabha Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

The correct answer is D, Article 343. Article 343(1) says the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script, and that the international form of Indian numerals shall be used for official purposes. It also allowed English to continue for fifteen years from 1950; the Official Languages Act 1963 then kept English alongside Hindi beyond 1965. Articles 343 to 351 form Part XVII on Official Language, and Hindi Diwas is celebrated on 14 September because the Constituent Assembly adopted Hindi as the official language on that day in 1949. Note that India has no 'national language'; Hindi is the official language of the Union, and the Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages. Option A is wrong because Article 370 gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Option B is wrong because Article 51A lists the Fundamental Duties. Option C is wrong because Article 80 is about the composition of the Rajya Sabha. Exam tip: 343 = Hindi in Devanagari, 344 = Official Language Commission, 348 = language of the courts.

The correct answer is A, Admission or establishment of new states. Article 2 lets Parliament admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. Article 2 deals with territory that is outside India, for example Sikkim, which was admitted as a full State by the 36th Amendment in 1975. Article 3, by contrast, works inside India: it lets Parliament form a new State from existing ones, and change their areas, boundaries or names, as happened with Telangana in 2014. Both sit in Part I, Articles 1 to 4, headed 'The Union and its Territory'. Option B is wrong because altering the area of an existing State is a power under Article 3. Option C is wrong because changing the name of an existing State is also Article 3. Option D is wrong because the name and territory of the Union, 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States', is Article 1. Exam tip: Article 2 = new States from outside, Article 3 = reorganising States inside.

The correct answer is A, Article 80. Article 80 lays down how the Council of States, the Rajya Sabha, is composed. It fixes the House at not more than 250 members: 12 nominated by the President for special knowledge in literature, science, art and social service, and up to 238 representatives of the States and Union Territories, elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation by the single transferable vote. Article 81, the next one, does the same job for the Lok Sabha, and Articles 79 to 122 together cover Parliament. Option B is wrong because Article 395 only repeals the Indian Independence Act 1947 and the Government of India Act 1935. Option C is wrong because Article 51A lists the Fundamental Duties of citizens. Option D is wrong because Article 12 defines the 'State' for Part III on Fundamental Rights. Exam tip: remember the pair 80 = Rajya Sabha composition, 81 = Lok Sabha composition, and 250 = 238 + 12.

The correct answer is D, Delhi. The Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque, "Might of Islam", stands in the Qutub complex at Mehrauli in Delhi, next to the Qutub Minar and the Iron Pillar. Qutb-ud-din Aibak began it in 1192-93, right after the Turkish conquest, making it the first mosque built in Delhi and the earliest surviving example of Indo-Islamic architecture in India. Its pillars were taken from twenty-seven demolished Hindu and Jain temples, which is why they still carry bells, chains and floral carvings, and Iltutmish and Alauddin Khalji later enlarged it. The complex is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. A, Panipat, has the Kabuli Bagh mosque built by Babur after the first battle of Panipat in 1526. B, Lahore, has the Badshahi mosque of Aurangzeb. C, Ajmer, has Aibak's other mosque, the Adhai Din ka Jhonpra, which is the usual trap in this question. Exam tip: Aibak built Quwwat-ul-Islam in Delhi and Adhai Din ka Jhonpra in Ajmer.

The correct answer is D, Olympic Council of Asia. ASIAD is the short name for the Asian Games, the continent's multi-sport event held every four years, and it is run by the Olympic Council of Asia, OCA, headquartered in Kuwait City. The OCA was formed in 1982, taking over from the Asian Games Federation that had organised the Games since the first edition in New Delhi in 1951; New Delhi hosted again in 1982, the year Appu the elephant became the mascot. The Games are recognised by the International Olympic Committee, but the day-to-day regulation is the OCA's job. A, International Olympic Council, is a distorted name for the International Olympic Committee, which runs the Olympic Games, not the Asian Games. B, the Commonwealth Games Federation, governs the Commonwealth Games. C, Indian Olympic Council, points to the Indian Olympic Association, India's national body, which only sends the Indian team. Exam tip: Asian Games = OCA, Kuwait; first held 1951 in New Delhi; motto "Ever Onward".

The correct answer is B, Indonesia. President Sukarno of Indonesia was the chief guest at India's first Republic Day on 26 January 1950, the day the Constitution came into force and Dr Rajendra Prasad took oath as the first President. Indonesia had won its own independence from the Dutch only weeks earlier, in December 1949, and Sukarno and Nehru were close partners in the Asian anti-colonial movement that later became the Non-Aligned Movement, which is why he was chosen. That first parade was held at the Irwin Amphitheatre, today the Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium, not on Rajpath. A, Bhutan, sent King Jigme Dorji Wangchuck as chief guest in 1954. C, China, was represented by Marshal Ye Jianying in 1958. D, Japan, had its Prime Minister Shinzo Abe as chief guest in 2014. Exam tip: first Republic Day chief guest, Sukarno of Indonesia, 1950; Indonesia's President Joko Widodo was chief guest again in 2018 with the ASEAN leaders.

The correct answer is D, New Delhi. The National Dope Testing Laboratory, NDTL, is in New Delhi and works under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. It analyses the urine and blood samples of athletes for banned substances and is accredited by the World Anti-Doping Agency, WADA, which allows its results to be used in international sport. The other arm of the system, the National Anti-Doping Agency, NADA, which collects the samples and decides the cases, is also in New Delhi, so both national anti-doping bodies share the capital. NDTL is an autonomous body; NADA was set up in 2005 under the Societies Registration Act. A, Mumbai, has no national anti-doping facility. B, Bangalore, hosts a Sports Authority of India centre but not the laboratory. C, Punjab, has the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports at Patiala, India's main coaching institute, which is a different body. Exam tip: NDTL tests, NADA polices, both in New Delhi; WADA, the world body, is in Montreal.

The correct answer is A, Roman. The rupee sign blends the Devanagari letter "र" (Ra) with the Roman capital "R" with its vertical stem removed, so that it reads as an Indian letter and an international one at the same time. It was designed by D. Udaya Kumar, then a student at IIT Bombay and later a professor at IIT Guwahati, who won a nationwide open competition; the Union Cabinet approved it on 15 July 2010. The two parallel horizontal lines across the top stand for the tricolour and for the equality sign, a nod to a balanced economy. With this sign the rupee joined the dollar, pound, euro and yen as currencies with their own symbol. B, Ol Chiki, is the script created for the Santali language and has no part in the design. C, Brahmi, is the ancient script of Ashoka's edicts, not used here. D, Cyrillic, is the script of Russian and other Slavic languages. Exam tip: rupee symbol = Devanagari Ra + Roman R, designed by Udaya Kumar, adopted 15 July 2010.

The correct answer is B, 1973. Project Tiger was launched on 1 April 1973 by the Government of India under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, from Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand, to save the Bengal tiger and its habitat. It began with nine tiger reserves, including Corbett, Kanha, Bandipur, Ranthambore, Sundarbans and Manas, and the network has since grown to more than fifty. Each reserve has a core area free of human activity and a buffer zone around it. Since 2005 the project is run by the National Tiger Conservation Authority, a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, and the tiger census is done every four years. A, 1985, is not linked to the tiger programme. C, 1972, is the year of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, the law that came a year before the project and is often confused with it. D, 1970, is when India banned tiger hunting. Exam tip: 1970 hunting ban, 1972 Wildlife Act, 1973 Project Tiger, 1992 Project Elephant.

The correct answer is A, 1982. The Ramsar Convention came into force for India on 1 February 1982, the date on which India's accession took effect. The treaty itself was signed on 2 February 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar, on the Caspian Sea, and came into force internationally in 1975; 2 February is therefore observed as World Wetlands Day. It is the only global convention devoted to one type of ecosystem, and sites listed under it are called Ramsar sites or Wetlands of International Importance. India's first two, Chilika Lake in Odisha and Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan, were designated on 1 October 1981, just before the convention took effect for the country. So keep three years apart: 1971 signed, 1975 in force worldwide, 1982 in force for India. B, 1980, is the year of the Forest (Conservation) Act, not Ramsar. C, 1989, and D, 1990, have no link with the convention in India. Exam tip: Ramsar 1971, wetlands, Iran; India joined 1982; Chilika and Keoladeo were first.

The correct answer is D, 9. Period 2 holds the eight elements from lithium (3) to neon (10), and group 17 is the halogen column, whose members have seven electrons in the outer shell. The element that is both in period 2 and in group 17 is fluorine, with electronic configuration 2, 7, and atomic number 9. You can work it out without memorising: period 2 means two shells, group 17 means seven valence electrons, so the electrons are 2 + 7 = 9, and in a neutral atom the number of electrons equals the atomic number. Fluorine is the most electronegative element and the most reactive non-metal. A, 8, is oxygen, which is in period 2 but in group 16 with six valence electrons. B, 7, is nitrogen, period 2, group 15. C, 10, is neon, period 2, group 18, a noble gas with a full shell. Exam tip: for periods 2 and 3, atomic number = electrons in the inner shells plus the group's last digit; 2 + 7 gives fluorine, 10 + 7 gives chlorine (17).

The correct answer is C, 82. Lead has 82 protons in its nucleus, so its atomic number is 82. Its symbol is Pb, from the Latin plumbum, the root of the word "plumber", because Roman water pipes were made of lead. It sits in group 14 and period 6 of the periodic table, below carbon, silicon, germanium and tin, and it is the heaviest element that has stable isotopes; the decay chains of uranium and thorium end at lead. Lead is soft, dense and poisonous, which is why it has been removed from petrol and paint, and it is used in car batteries and radiation shields. The four options are neighbours in the table, so the exam is testing the exact number. A, 81, is thallium (Tl). B, 78, is platinum (Pt). D, 79, is gold (Au). Exam tip: the run of heavy metals goes 78 platinum, 79 gold, 80 mercury, 81 thallium, 82 lead.

The correct answer is B, Pressure. The torr is a unit of pressure named after Evangelista Torricelli, the Italian scientist who invented the mercury barometer in 1643. One torr is the pressure of a one-millimetre column of mercury, so 1 torr = 1 mm Hg, and it equals about 133.3 pascal. Normal atmospheric pressure at sea level is 760 torr, which is the same as 760 mm Hg, 1 atmosphere or 101,325 pascal. The pascal is the SI unit of pressure, one newton per square metre, but the torr and mm Hg are still used for blood pressure and vacuum work. A, Power, is measured in watt, with horsepower as the older unit. C, Energy, is measured in joule, with calorie and electron-volt as other units. D, Force, is measured in newton, or dyne in the CGS system. Exam tip: pressure units are pascal, bar, atmosphere, torr and mm Hg; 760 torr = 1 atm.

The correct answer is B, Vitamin C. Vitamins fall into two groups: the water-soluble ones, which are vitamin C and the whole B-complex, and the fat-soluble ones, A, D, E and K. Vitamin C is ascorbic acid, found in citrus fruits, amla, guava and tomatoes; its deficiency causes scurvy, with bleeding gums and slow healing of wounds. Because water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body and the extra is passed out in urine, they must be taken daily, while fat-soluble vitamins are stored in the liver and fatty tissue. A, Vitamin K, is fat-soluble and needed for blood clotting. C, Vitamin A, retinol, is fat-soluble and its deficiency causes night blindness. D, Vitamin D, calciferol, is fat-soluble, made in the skin in sunlight, and its lack causes rickets. Exam tip: remember "ADEK are fat-soluble"; everything else, B-complex and C, dissolves in water.

The correct answer is C, GST collected by the government. A revenue receipt is money the government gets without creating a liability for itself or selling off an asset; tax collections such as GST, income tax and excise, and non-tax income such as interest, dividends and fees, all fall in this class. A capital receipt is the opposite: it either creates a liability, like a loan, or reduces an asset, like selling shares. Apply that two-part test to each option and only GST passes. A, sale of shares of public sector companies, is disinvestment, which reduces the government's assets, so it is a capital receipt. B, recovery of loans, also reduces an asset, the loan owed to the government, so it too is capital. D, borrowings from the public, create a liability that must be repaid, the clearest capital receipt of all. Exam tip: revenue receipt = tax and non-tax income; capital receipt = borrowings, disinvestment and loan recoveries.

The correct answer is B, Total demand and term deposits. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio, or SLR, is the share of a bank's net demand and time liabilities, that is, all its demand deposits and term deposits taken together, that it must hold in liquid assets such as cash, gold or approved government securities. It is prescribed under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and the bank keeps these assets with itself, unlike the Cash Reserve Ratio, which is a cash balance kept with the Reserve Bank under the RBI Act, 1934. Both ratios are fixed on the same base, total deposits, and both are tools the RBI uses to control how much banks can lend. A, Current deposits, are only one part of demand deposits, so the base would be far too small. C, Term deposits, leave out demand deposits. D, Saving deposits, are again only one slice of the total. Exam tip: SLR and CRR are both fractions of net demand and time liabilities; SLR stays with the bank in liquid assets, CRR goes to the RBI in cash.