RRB NTPC GK Questions 2026

The correct answer is Optionally Convertible Debentures, usually shortened to OCD. The Technology Development Board is routing its support to Ubifly Technologies through this instrument, which is a form of debt that the holder has the option of converting into equity shares of the company after an agreed period. Option A is wrong because the release does not describe the money as a grant; the choice of a convertible instrument is precisely what distinguishes this kind of deep-tech support from a subsidy. Option B is wrong because sovereign green bonds are raised by the government in the market for environment-related spending and have nothing to do with this approval. Option D is wrong because viability gap funding is a support mechanism used mainly in infrastructure projects. The Research Development and Innovation Fund, from which this support comes, is a Rs 1 lakh crore pool aimed at private-sector-led technology development.

The correct answer is a three-seater zero-emission advanced air mobility aircraft. The release describes the e200X as configured for one pilot and two passengers, with a targeted range of 110 km and an ideal speed of 160 kmph, and with a landing gear built for both conventional and vertical landing so that it can operate out of relatively small spaces. Option A is wrong because the aircraft is electrically powered and seats three, not two, and it is not described as a trainer. Option C is wrong because the configuration explicitly includes a pilot on board along with two passengers, so it is not an unmanned platform. Option D is wrong on every count, as the e200X is a small electric machine and not a turboprop airliner. Its indigenous elements include vertical rotors, forward propellers, proprietary flight-control algorithms, power-distribution controllers and battery packs with integrated cooling.

The correct answer is Rs 285 crore. The Technology Development Board, which functions under the Department of Science and Technology, approved that amount for Ubifly Technologies Private Limited of Chennai out of the Research Development and Innovation Fund, for its indigenous ePlane advanced air mobility solution. Option C is the figure most likely to mislead a candidate: it is the total approved cost of the project, not the Board's share, so the Board is meeting roughly half of the outlay while the rest comes from elsewhere. Option A and option D do not appear anywhere in the announcement and are simply plausible-looking amounts. The support is being extended through Optionally Convertible Debentures rather than as an outright grant, and its stated purpose is to carry the technology from Technology Readiness Level 6 to Level 9, which is the stage of an operationally demonstrated system.

The correct answer is the women's skeet team event. The Prime Minister congratulated the three shooters on the bronze medal and said their focus, precision and teamwork had brought another proud moment for Indian sport. Skeet is a shotgun discipline in which clay targets are flung across the range and the team result is arrived at by combining the members' scores. Option A, women's archery team, is wrong because all three are shooters and no archery result was announced in this message. Option B, women's trap team, names a different shotgun event; trap and skeet are separate disciplines and the medal here was specifically in skeet. Option D, women's air rifle team, belongs to the rifle group of shooting events and not to the shotgun group, so it does not fit this result either.

The correct answer is the women's 49 kg weightlifting event. The Prime Minister congratulated Mirabai Chanu on winning the silver medal in that category, saying her determination and consistency continue to inspire the nation and that India is proud of her. The weight class is the detail an examiner will test, so it should be memorised along with the colour of the medal. Option A, 45 kg, and option C, 55 kg, are other weight categories in the sport but are not the one in which she competed here. Option D, women's skeet individual, belongs to shooting and not to weightlifting; on the same day a women's skeet team bronze went to Parinaaz Dhaliwal, Maheshwari Chauhan and Raiza Dhillon, which is a separate result and a team event rather than an individual one.

The correct answer is Jay Meena. He won the bronze medal in the men's individual event in soft tennis and thereby became the first Indian ever to win an Asian Games medal in that sport. The Prime Minister described the result as a historic achievement for Indian soft tennis, said it marks a memorable new chapter for the game in India, and expressed the hope that it would inspire more youngsters to take up the sport. Option B, Mirabai Chanu, is wrong because she is a weightlifter and was congratulated the same day for a silver medal in the women's 49 kg event, not for anything in soft tennis. Option C, Raiza Dhillon, and option D, Maheshwari Chauhan, are wrong because both are shooters who were part of the women's skeet team that won a bronze medal, along with Parinaaz Dhaliwal.

The correct answer is Visit, Board, Search and Seizure. The release lists VBSS among the Special Forces drills carried out in the sea phase of SLINEX-26, along with slithering operations. VBSS is the standard boarding procedure by which a naval team stops a suspicious vessel, goes aboard, searches it and, where the law allows, seizes it, and it is the core skill in anti-piracy and anti-smuggling operations in the Indian Ocean Region. Option B, Vessel Berthing and Safety Standards, is invented and describes harbour regulation rather than a naval drill. Option C, Visual Beacon Signalling System, is a made-up equipment name and not a Special Forces activity. Option D, Vertical Boarding and Sea Survey, mixes two unrelated ideas and does not appear in the release. The sea phase also covered coordinated manoeuvres, air operations and replenishment at sea carried out at night.

The correct answer is 13th. The Ministry of Defence described the exercise held from 17 to 21 September 2026 as the 13th edition of the India-Sri Lanka bilateral maritime exercise, and it concluded at Visakhapatnam. Editions are the detail most often asked about recurring exercises, so the number should be memorised along with the venue and the year. Option A, the 11th, and option B, the 12th, refer to earlier editions of the series and not to the one that ended in September 2026. Option D, the 14th, would be a future edition and has not yet been held. The exercise ran in two phases: a harbour phase with cross-deck visits and sporting interaction, and a sea phase with coordinated manoeuvres, air operations, night replenishment at sea, slithering operations and Visit, Board, Search and Seizure drills that build interoperability between the two navies.

The correct answer is Sri Lanka. SLINEX is the bilateral maritime exercise held between the Indian Navy and the Sri Lanka Navy, and its name itself is formed from the two countries. The 13th edition, SLINEX-26, was conducted from 17 to 21 September 2026 and concluded at Visakhapatnam, with a harbour phase of professional exchanges and cross-deck visits followed by a sea phase of coordinated manoeuvres, air operations, night replenishment at sea and Special Forces drills. Option A, Bangladesh, is wrong because the exercise India conducts with the Bangladesh Navy carries a different name and did not feature in this release. Option C, Maldives, is wrong for the same reason; no Maldivian participation was reported in this exercise. Option D, Indonesia, is wrong because the release describes SLINEX strictly as an India-Sri Lanka bilateral activity, with no third navy taking part. The Ministry of Defence connected the drill to the MAHASAGAR vision and the Neighbourhood First policy.

The correct answer is the Watershed Development Component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana in its third phase. The release states that the guidelines under preparation will be used for future generation watershed development in the country under that component, which is why the meeting spent its time on validating claims in the draft and on data from the two participating states. The crop insurance scheme in the second option is wrong, as it compensates farmers for crop loss and has no role in framing watershed guidelines. The sustainable agriculture mission in the third option is wrong; it is a separate programme and is not named anywhere in the release. The agriculture development scheme in the fourth option is wrong for the same reason. Remember the pairing of the guidelines with the watershed component and its version number, because the phase is itself examinable.

The correct answer is Dr Chandra Shekhar Kumar, Chief Executive Officer of the National Rainfed Area Authority. The release names him as presiding over the meeting and records his instruction that claims in the draft guidelines be validated against data actually collected under the programme. The Deputy Director General for natural resource management at ICAR is wrong; he attended and spoke on integrating the land resource inventory with hydrology, but did not preside. The Joint Secretary for watershed management in the Department of Land Resources is wrong as well; his contribution was the suggestion to shorten the time taken to prepare detailed project reports. The Commissioner of the watershed department in Karnataka is wrong because he joined the meeting online as a state participant. Aspirants should remember who said what, since questions on such meetings often attach a specific proposal to the wrong officer.

The correct answer is Rejuvenating Watersheds for Agricultural Resilience through Innovative Development, the expansion given in the release for the programme under which the technical committee met at the NASC Complex in New Delhi. The second option is wrong; it is built from plausible words but does not match the expansion, and in particular it drops the idea of resilience, which is central to the programme's purpose. The third option is wrong for the same reason and adds terms about ecology and drylands that do not appear in the name. The fourth option is wrong because the programme is not an employment scheme, and confusing it with rural employment programmes is a common error. Candidates should also link the programme with the body running it, the National Rainfed Area Authority, which functions under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, since acronym questions are often paired with the parent ministry.

The correct answer is 52,050. That is the count of public grievances the Ministry reported as disposed of over the period named in the release, and it is listed alongside the other results of its earlier round of the campaign. The first option is wrong because that figure belongs to the grievance appeals, a separate and much smaller category that is reported next to the grievances themselves and is frequently mixed up with them. The second option is wrong; no such figure appears anywhere in the release. The fourth option is wrong because that number is the office space freed in square feet across the Ministry and the Central Armed Police Forces, not a count of grievances at all, and it is included here precisely because a hurried reader may pick the largest number on the page. Read each figure with its unit before answering.

The correct answer is 2 October to 31 October 2026. The campaign is split in two, and this is the second and longer part, in which the work actually happens across offices. The first option is wrong, and is the commonest error, because those are the dates of the preparation phase that comes before it; candidates who remember only one pair of dates usually give this answer. The second option is wrong because the implementation phase does not begin on the first of the month and does not end in the middle of it. The fourth option is wrong because the drive is completed within October and does not extend into the following month. A useful memory hook is that the implementation phase opens on the second day of October and runs to the last day of that month, so the whole of the month except its first day is covered.

The correct answer is the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, usually written as DARPG, which the release names as the organiser of the drive. The Ministry of Home Affairs is a participant, not the organiser, and its role is to run the campaign within its own divisions, attached offices and field formations. The Department of Personnel and Training is wrong; although it also deals with administration, the release does not connect it with this campaign. The Cabinet Secretariat is wrong as well, since monitoring inside the Ministry is described as happening at its own highest level rather than through that office. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is wrong because the campaign described here runs across central government offices and their field units, not local bodies. Aspirants should hold the organiser, the participating ministry and the two phase dates together, since questions about this campaign usually test one of those three.

The correct answer is 77 countries. The declaration was one of the chief outcomes of the first edition of the World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit, held in Mumbai, and the backgrounder lists it alongside the other results of the event, including the business transactions generated by the WAVES Bazaar. The first option is wrong; no such count appears anywhere in the document. The second option is wrong, and is a trap, because that number belongs to the registrations drawn by the Create in India Challenges from creators abroad, not to the countries adopting the declaration. The fourth option is wrong for a similar reason: a three-figure count of countries is mentioned in the summary of the summit's participation, not in connection with the declaration. Aspirants should separate the three tallies carefully, since the summit description packs several country counts into a few lines.

The correct answer is 23 March 2026. MyWAVES was opened inside the existing streaming platform on that date, and it changed the service from something people only watched into something they could contribute to, by letting citizens make, upload and share original short, vertical and episodic content. The first option is wrong because that is the date the streaming platform itself was launched at the film festival in Goa, not the date the creator section appeared. The second option is wrong because that is when the first edition of the summit opened in Mumbai. The fourth option is wrong because that is the day the Gems of India Challenge pilot began, which runs through the creator section but is a later and separate step. This question rewards candidates who keep a small timeline of the four dates rather than remembering them one at a time.

The correct answer is the 55th International Film Festival of India in Goa, where the platform was unveiled in November as the public broadcaster's public-service streaming service. The first WAVES Summit in Mumbai is wrong, and is the most tempting distractor because the summit carries the same name: it was held later, in May of the following year, and the streaming platform already existed by then. The India International Trade Fair is wrong, as the backgrounder connects the launch to a film festival and not to a trade exhibition. The Kolkata International Film Festival is wrong as well; although it is also a film festival, the release names the national festival held in Goa and gives its edition number. The safe way to carry this is as a set: the broadcaster, the festival with its edition number, the venue state and the launch date, since a question may supply any one of them and ask for another.

The correct answer is imprisonment of up to three years or a fine of up to fifty lakh rupees, or both. The prohibition itself sits in Section 42(3)(c) of the Act, which bars tampering with telecommunication identifiers, while the neighbouring clause covers obtaining SIMs or identifiers through fraud, cheating or impersonation. The first option is wrong because it understates both the jail term and the maximum fine laid down. The third option is wrong because the statute plainly provides for imprisonment as well as a fine, and indeed allows both together. The fourth option is wrong on two counts: it stretches the term of imprisonment beyond what the Act prescribes and it wrongly removes the fine. Two further points are worth carrying: such offences are cognizable and non-bailable under Section 42(7), and under Section 42(6) a person who abets or promotes the offence is liable to the same punishment as the offender.

The correct answer is the GSMA, the Global System for Mobile Communications Association. The backgrounder says it oversees the worldwide allocation of the Type Allocation Code, handing codes to manufacturers and brand owners, who then assign unique device identities to individual handsets. TRAI is wrong, because the regulator appears in the release only in connection with the rule restricting messaging for a day after a re-issued SIM is activated, not with code allocation. The Department of Telecommunications is wrong as well; it advises citizens on what to avoid and runs the registration and verification machinery in India, but the global code pool is not its to allocate. The International Telecommunication Union is wrong because the release does not assign it this role. A useful chain to memorise is that the association allocates the code, the manufacturer assigns the full identity, and the Indian portals then register it.