RRB NTPC GK Questions 2026

The correct answer is the GSMA, the Global System for Mobile Communications Association. The backgrounder says it oversees the worldwide allocation of the Type Allocation Code, handing codes to manufacturers and brand owners, who then assign unique device identities to individual handsets. TRAI is wrong, because the regulator appears in the release only in connection with the rule restricting messaging for a day after a re-issued SIM is activated, not with code allocation. The Department of Telecommunications is wrong as well; it advises citizens on what to avoid and runs the registration and verification machinery in India, but the global code pool is not its to allocate. The International Telecommunication Union is wrong because the release does not assign it this role. A useful chain to memorise is that the association allocates the code, the manufacturer assigns the full identity, and the Indian portals then register it.

The correct answer is fifteen digits. The International Mobile Equipment Identity is described as a unique number of that length which identifies a mobile device on a telecom network, and the first eight of those digits make up the Type Allocation Code that identifies the model or type of the handset. Ten digits is wrong; that is the length of a mobile telephone number in India and the two are often confused, but a telephone number belongs to the connection while this number belongs to the device. Twelve digits is wrong as well and matches no identifier described in the backgrounder. Eighteen digits is wrong because it overstates the length, and no identifier of that size is named. Candidates should also remember the way to read one off a handset, which is by dialling the short code given in the release, and that a dual-SIM phone normally carries two such numbers, one for each slot.

The correct answer is twelve approved and five operational. The backgrounder states that the government has cleared this many semiconductor projects under the Semicon India programme, and that five commercial semiconductor units were already running by September of that year. The first option is wrong on both counts, understating the approvals as well as the units in production. The third option is wrong because it inflates the approvals and the operating units alike, and no such tally appears in the release. The fourth option is wrong for the same reason and is the furthest from the stated position. The point worth carrying forward is the gap between approvals and operations: a project being approved does not mean a plant is producing, which is why the release reports the two numbers separately. Candidates should also link this with the Production Linked Incentive schemes and the India Semiconductor Mission, the two instruments named as driving this build-up.

The correct answer is more than 600. The backgrounder records that the event brought together this many exhibitors, of whom close to three hundred were international companies, and treats that mix as a sign of the global interest now being shown in the country's semiconductor and electronics ecosystem. The first option is wrong because it falls short of the stated count and appears nowhere in the release. The third option is wrong for the opposite reason; it overstates the number, and no such figure is given. The fourth option is wrong as well, since a four-figure count is not claimed anywhere in the document. The useful pairing for an examination is the total against the international share, because a question may supply one and ask for the other, and the second figure is also the one that shows how much of the participation came from outside India.

The correct answer is Amitesh Kumar Sinha, Chief Executive Officer of the India Semiconductor Mission. The backgrounder names him as the moderator of the session, which brought senior representatives of the leading industry associations together to discuss how deeper cooperation could speed up the country's semiconductor and electronics plans. The Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog is wrong, as that office is not connected with this session in the release. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is wrong because the discussion concerned manufacturing and industry coordination rather than monetary policy, and no central bank official is mentioned. The Chairman of ISRO is wrong for the same reason; the space agency has no role in the panel described. Aspirants should remember the mission's name along with the office, because questions often ask which body the moderator headed rather than his name, and the India Semiconductor Mission is itself a frequently tested institution.

The correct answer is that it is the largest healthcare scheme in the world. The Prime Minister said the annual cover now reaches more than sixty crore beneficiaries, and on that basis described the initiative as the biggest of its kind anywhere. The second option is wrong, because nothing in the message speaks of the scheme being wound up or merged; the tone of the anniversary message is the opposite, pointing to expansion and to record savings on medical expenses. The third option is wrong because the message identifies the poor and the middle class as the groups that have gained, not a restricted category of government employees. The fourth option is wrong because the cover described is an annual health cover, and the message separately credits the Ayushman Arogya Mandirs with strengthening primary care, showing that the two parts of the initiative are distinct rather than the cover being limited to outpatient visits.

The correct answer is over 500 crore. The Prime Minister used this figure to argue that healthcare is moving closer to every doorstep, since the centres named Ayushman Arogya Mandirs deliver primary care in neighbourhoods and villages rather than in distant hospitals. The option of over 100 crore is wrong, as the message names a far larger count and this figure only looks plausible to someone recalling the number of beneficiaries instead. Over 300 crore is wrong as well; it appears nowhere in the release and is included to catch a half-remembered answer. Over 700 crore is wrong because it overshoots the stated figure, and no higher count is claimed anywhere in the anniversary message. Candidates should note that this figure counts visits, not people, so it is much larger than the beneficiary count and the two must never be interchanged in an answer.

The correct answer is Rs 5 lakh. In his anniversary message the Prime Minister said that more than sixty crore beneficiaries now have access to an annual health cover of this amount, and that the reach of the cover is what makes the initiative the largest healthcare scheme in the world. Rs 1 lakh is wrong; no such figure appears in the message, and a cover that small would not carry a family through a serious hospital admission, which is the burden the scheme was designed to lift. Rs 3 lakh is wrong for the same reason and is offered only as a plausible-looking lower figure. Rs 10 lakh is wrong because the cover named is half that amount, though aspirants sometimes confuse it with other insurance products. The safest way to hold this is to remember the pair together: the cover amount on one side and the beneficiary count on the other, because examiners frequently ask for one and supply the other.

The correct answer is Safety Integrity Level-4, usually written SIL-4. The release describes the train protection system as heavily dependent on technology and therefore obliged to carry safety certification of the highest order, which it identifies as SIL-4. Level-2 is wrong because it is a lower grade and would not satisfy a system that can apply brakes on a running train without human action. Level-3 is wrong for the same reason; it is one step below the grade actually named. Level-5 is wrong because the release names Level-4 as the highest order of certification here, so a fifth level is not what the system is held to. In examinations this fact is often paired with the system's purpose, so remember together that KAVACH is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system, that it guards against Signal Passing at Danger, and that it is certified at SIL-4.

The correct answer is 108 route kilometres. That is the length of the Malkajgiri-Kamareddi section in the Hyderabad Division on which the system was carried up from the older edition to the newer one. The figure of 208 is wrong; no such length is mentioned anywhere in the announcement and it is offered only as a near-miss distractor. The figure of 1,465 is the trap in this question: that is the spread of the earlier Version 3.2 across South Central Railway as a whole, not the stretch newly upgraded, and aspirants who read hurriedly often swap the two. The figure of 512 is wrong as well, since it appears nowhere in the release. The safest way to hold this pair in memory is to remember that the newly upgraded piece is small and the older version's footprint on the zone is more than ten times larger.

The correct answer is South Central Railway. The Ministry of Railways said that Version 4.0 of the train protection system was put into service for the first time on this zone, on the Malkajgiri-Kamareddi section of the Hyderabad Division. The zone was the natural choice because the previous edition, Version 3.2, was already working there across a long stretch of route, and the operating experience gathered from it shaped the improvements built into the newer version. Northern Railway is wrong, because the release names no such commissioning on that zone. Western Railway is wrong for the same reason; the announcement is confined to the southern zone named in it. East Coast Railway is also wrong, as the section upgraded lies in the Hyderabad Division, which belongs to South Central Railway and not to the eastern coastal zone. Candidates should tie the version number, the zone, the division and the section together, since a question may name any one of them.

The correct answer is Article 20-21. During a National Emergency, Article 359 lets the President suspend the right to move the courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. After the experience of the 1975–77 Emergency, when detentions could not be challenged in court (the Supreme Court had upheld this in the ADM Jabalpur case of 1976), the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 laid down that the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended. Article 20 protects an accused person against ex post facto criminal laws, double jeopardy and self-incrimination; Article 21 protects life and personal liberty.

Article 19 is the opposite case. Under Article 358, its six freedoms are suspended automatically when a National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression, though not on the ground of armed rebellion. That is why the option containing Article 19 is the least likely answer of all. The other options pair Articles from the Right to Equality, whose enforcement the President can suspend by an order under Article 359. Remember it as a pair: 20 and 21 always survive, 19 goes first.

The correct answer is Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978). Article 21 says that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to "procedure established by law". In A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950) the Supreme Court read this narrowly: any procedure laid down by a validly made law was enough, however unfair. In Maneka Gandhi, a case about the impounding of a passport, the Court rejected that approach and held that the procedure must be fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary or oppressive. In effect this brought Article 21 close to the American idea of due process.

This decision opened the way for courts to read many rights into Article 21, such as the rights to live with dignity, to a speedy trial and, later, to privacy. The other options are real cases on different questions: Gopalan is the narrow view that Maneka Gandhi overturned, Golaknath (1967) held that Parliament could not abridge Fundamental Rights, and Minerva Mills (1980) held that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is part of the basic structure.

The correct answer is the six freedoms of Article 19. Article 19 opens with the words "All citizens shall have the right", so its freedoms of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession belong only to citizens of India. The other rights available only to citizens are Article 15 (no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth), Article 16 (equality of opportunity in public employment), Article 29 (protection of language, script and culture) and Article 30 (minority educational institutions).

The other three options are available to every person, including foreigners, except enemy aliens. Article 14 speaks of equality before law for "any person", Article 21 protects the life and personal liberty of "any person", and Article 25 gives freedom of religion to "all persons". A quick check in the exam is to look at the wording: Articles that say "citizen" are for citizens only, while those that say "person" cover foreigners too. The full list of citizens-only rights is 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30.

The correct answer is to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office. Quo Warranto means "by what authority or warrant". Through it, a court asks a person holding a public office to show by what right they hold it, and if the claim is not valid, the court can remove them. It prevents the illegal usurpation of public offices.

Two features make it different from the other writs. First, it can be sought by any interested person, not necessarily the person aggrieved. Second, it applies only to a substantive public office created by a statute or by the Constitution; it cannot be issued for a ministerial office or a private office. The other options describe the other writs: releasing an unlawfully detained person is Habeas Corpus, commanding an official to perform a duty is Mandamus, and quashing an order already passed by a lower court is Certiorari. The five writs appear in Article 32 for the Supreme Court and in Article 226 for the High Courts.

The correct answer is Habeas Corpus, a Latin phrase meaning "to have the body of". Through this writ a court orders whoever is holding a person to produce that person before it and show the legal grounds for the detention. If the detention is found unlawful, the person is set free at once. It can be issued against public authorities and private individuals alike, and a petition can be filed by the detained person or by someone on their behalf. It is not issued where the detention is lawful, where it is for contempt of a legislature or a court, or where a competent court has ordered it.

The other three writs do different jobs. Certiorari transfers a case from a lower court or tribunal, or quashes an order it has already passed. Prohibition stops a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction while a case is pending. Mandamus, meaning "we command", orders a public official to perform a duty. Habeas Corpus is often called the strongest safeguard of personal liberty, because it puts the protections of Articles 21 and 22 into immediate effect.

The correct answer is Article 32. Speaking in the Constituent Assembly, Dr B.R. Ambedkar said that if he were asked to name the most important Article, one without which the Constitution would be a nullity, he could not refer to any other; it was "the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it". His reasoning was simple: a right without a remedy is only words on paper. Article 32 gives every person the right to go directly to the Supreme Court to enforce a Fundamental Right, and this right to a remedy is itself a Fundamental Right. The Supreme Court has held Article 32 to be part of the basic structure, so it cannot be taken away even by an amendment.

The wrong options are Article 4, which says that laws forming or changing States under Articles 2 and 3 are not amendments of the Constitution; Article 28, which bars religious instruction in fully State-funded institutions; and Article 30, on minority educational institutions. Keep this description apart from others: the Preamble is the "identity card" of the Constitution, according to N.A. Palkhivala.

The correct answer is Article 30. Article 30(1) gives all minorities, whether based on religion or on language, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 30(2) adds that the State, when giving aid to educational institutions, shall not discriminate against an institution because it is managed by a minority. Together with Article 29, it makes up the Cultural and Educational Rights.

Article 26 is the most tempting wrong answer, because it too speaks of establishing institutions. But Article 26 gives religious denominations the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes and to manage their own religious affairs; it is about religion, not education. Article 30 is specifically about educational institutions and specifically for minorities. Article 29, by contrast, protects any section of citizens with a distinct language, script or culture, majority or minority. Of the other options, Article 24 bans child labour in hazardous work and Article 32 is the right to constitutional remedies.

The correct answer is Article 25 to Article 28. The Right to Freedom of Religion has four Articles: Article 25 gives freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion; Article 26 lets every religious denomination manage its own religious affairs; Article 27 says no one can be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion of a particular religion; and Article 28 bars religious instruction in educational institutions wholly maintained out of State funds.

Each wrong option is another group of Fundamental Rights: Articles 14 to 18 are the Right to Equality, Articles 19 to 22 the Right to Freedom, and Articles 29 and 30 the Cultural and Educational Rights. So this question really tests whether you know where each group begins and ends. If you remember the six starting points, 14, 19, 23, 25, 29 and 32, you can answer every question of this kind. Note too that these Articles were in the Constitution from 1950, long before the word "secular" was added to the Preamble in 1976.

The correct answer is 14. Article 24 says that no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment. Together with Article 23, which bans human trafficking and forced labour, it forms the Right against Exploitation.

The number 14 links several parts of the Constitution, so it is worth tying them together. Article 21A guarantees free and compulsory education from six to fourteen, Article 45 now covers early childhood care below six, and Article 51A(k) makes it a duty of parents to educate children between six and fourteen. Parliament has gone further than Article 24 through the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986: after its 2016 amendment it bars children below 14 from almost all work, with narrow exceptions such as helping a family business after school hours, and bars adolescents aged 14 to 18 from hazardous work. Of the wrong options, 18 tempts the most because it is the age of majority and, since the 61st Amendment of 1988, the voting age.