Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament and the state legislatures is vested in which authority?
- A.The President of India
- B.The Election Commission of India
- C.The Parliament of India
- D.The Supreme Court of India
Correct answer
Explanation
The correct answer is B, the Election Commission of India. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament, to the state legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. Option A is wrong because the President only appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners; the President does not conduct elections. Option C is wrong because Parliament makes election law, such as the Representation of the People Acts of 1950 and 1951, but does not conduct elections. Option D is wrong because the Supreme Court hears election disputes concerning the President and Vice-President under Article 71, while election petitions about parliamentary and assembly seats go first to the High Courts; courts do not supervise the polls.
Read the full article: Important Articles of the Constitution: Part-wise List
Practice Questions
View allArticle 32 belongs to which part of the Indian Constitution?
- A.Part II
- B.Part I
- C.Part III
- D.Part IV
Show answer
Explanation
The correct answer is C, Part III. Article 32 is the right to constitutional remedies, and it sits in Part III, the chapter of Fundamental Rights, which runs from Article 12 to Article 35. Under Article 32 a citizen may move the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of a fundamental right, and the Court may issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Dr B. R. Ambedkar called this article the heart and soul of the Constitution. Option A is wrong because Part II covers citizenship, Articles 5 to 11. Option B is wrong because Part I deals with the Union and its territory, Articles 1 to 4, including the formation of new states. Option D is wrong because Part IV holds the Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36 to 51, which are not enforceable in any court and are therefore the opposite of a remedy article.
Which article of the Indian Constitution defines the money bill?
- A.Article 114
- B.Article 112
- C.Article 116
- D.Article 110
Show answer
Explanation
The correct answer is D, Article 110. Article 110 defines a Money Bill as a bill dealing only with matters such as the imposition or abolition of a tax, borrowing by the Government of India, the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund, and the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President, and the Speaker's certificate on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final. Option A is wrong because Article 114 deals with Appropriation Bills, which authorise withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund. Option B is wrong because Article 112 provides for the annual financial statement, the Budget. Option C is wrong because Article 116 covers votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants.
Which article of the Constitution directs the State to secure a uniform civil code for the citizens of India?
- A.Article 42
- B.Article 43
- C.Article 44
- D.Article 45
Show answer
Explanation
The correct answer is C, Article 44. Article 44 is a Directive Principle in Part IV and says that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Like every directive principle it is not enforceable by any court, though the Supreme Court has referred to it in several judgments on personal law. Option A is wrong because Article 42 directs the State to provide for just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief. Option B is wrong because Article 43 asks for a living wage and decent conditions of work for workers, including cottage industry in rural areas. Option D is wrong because Article 45, after the Eighty-sixth Amendment, directs the State to provide early childhood care and education for children below the age of six years; before that amendment it covered free and compulsory education up to the age of fourteen.
The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are listed in which article of the Constitution?
- A.Article 48A
- B.Article 49
- C.Article 51A
- D.Article 50
Show answer
Explanation
The correct answer is C, Article 51A. The Fundamental Duties were not in the Constitution as adopted. They were inserted as Article 51A in a new Part IVA by the Forty-second Amendment Act of 1976, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, and one more duty, the duty of a parent or guardian to provide education to a child, was added by the Eighty-sixth Amendment of 2002. Option A is wrong because Article 48A, also added by the Forty-second Amendment, directs the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife; it is a directive principle, not a duty of citizens. Option B is wrong because Article 49 asks the State to protect monuments and places of national importance. Option D is wrong because Article 50 directs the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
Under which article can the President of India promulgate an ordinance when Parliament is not in session?
- A.Article 123
- B.Article 213
- C.Article 143
- D.Article 356
Show answer
Explanation
The correct answer is A, Article 123. Article 123 allows the President, when either House of Parliament is not in session, to promulgate an ordinance that has the same force as an Act of Parliament. The ordinance must be laid before both Houses when they reassemble and ceases to operate six weeks after that date unless it is approved earlier. Option B is wrong because Article 213 gives the identical power to a Governor for a state, which is the standard distractor in this question; candidates must remember 123 for the Union and 213 for a state. Option C is wrong because Article 143 lets the President refer a question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion. Option D is wrong because Article 356 provides for President's rule in a state when its government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.