The Foreign Exchange Management Act, FEMA, replaced which of the following laws?
- A.Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
- B.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- C.Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969
- D.Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
Correct answer
Explanation
The correct answer is A, the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act of 1973. FERA treated foreign exchange as a scarce resource, forbade most dealings unless permitted and made breaches criminal offences. It suited a closed economy and became unworkable after 1991, so Parliament passed the Foreign Exchange Management Act in 1999, which came into force in 2000, permits dealings unless restricted and treats breaches as civil matters. Option B is wrong because the Banking Regulation Act of 1949 governs the licensing and supervision of banks. Option C is wrong because the MRTP Act of 1969 dealt with monopolies and restrictive trade practices and was itself replaced by the Competition Act of 2002. Option D is wrong because the SEBI Act of 1992 gave statutory powers to the securities market regulator. Keep the pair FERA 1973 and FEMA 1999 ready, along with the fact that the Reserve Bank administers FEMA.
Read the full article: Foreign Exchange and Exchange Rate: Concepts and Policy
Practice Questions
View allWith reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct?
- A.1 and 2 only
- B.2 and 3 only
- C.1 and 3 only
- D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Statement 1 is right because the NEER is a trade weighted index of the rupee against a basket of partner currencies, so a rise in the index means the rupee has appreciated in nominal terms.
Read the full explanation →Consider the following statements: 1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A.1 and 2 only
- B.2 and 3 only
- C.1 and 3 only
- D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Statement 1 is right because when the United States Federal Reserve tightens, returns there become attractive and portfolio money flows out of emerging markets, which is capital flight.
Read the full explanation →What challenge does foreign investment often face in India?
- A.Excessive foreign competition
- B.Inconsistent regulatory environment
- C.Lack of skilled labour
- D.Lack of consumer base
Show answer
Foreign investors bring in foreign exchange and look for predictable rules, and the difficulty most often listed for India is regulatory uncertainty: changing rules, clearances spread across departments and states, and disputes that take long to settle.
Read the full explanation →In which year did India accept the obligations of Article VIII of the IMF, making the rupee fully convertible on the current account?
- A.1991
- B.1993
- C.1994
- D.1999
Show answer
India accepted the obligations of Article VIII of the Articles of Agreement of the International Monetary Fund in August 1994, which means the rupee can be exchanged freely for trade in goods and services, travel, education, remittances and interest payments.
Read the full explanation →Which of the following is not a component of India's foreign exchange reserves?
- A.Foreign currency assets
- B.Gold
- C.Special drawing rights
- D.Small savings collected by the government
Show answer
Small savings such as deposits in post office schemes are domestic rupee liabilities of the government and have nothing to do with the country's external assets.
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