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Indian EconomyMediumAsked in: UPSC CAPF · Paper I, 8 Aug 2021

The amount by which the equilibrium level of real GDP exceeds the full employment level of GDP is called

  1. A.recessionary gap
  2. B.inflationary gap
  3. C.income multiplier
  4. D.automatic stabilizer

Correct answer

B. inflationary gap

Explanation

The correct answer is B, inflationary gap. When demand pushes the economy to produce more than it can at full employment, the extra demand only drives prices up. Full-employment GDP, also called potential GDP, is the output an economy can produce when all its resources are in use. If aggregate demand is so high that equilibrium real GDP sits above this level, the difference is the inflationary gap. Real output cannot keep rising beyond capacity, so the excess shows up as rising prices. The idea comes from J.M. Keynes, who used it in his 1940 pamphlet "How to Pay for the War", and the cure is to cut demand through higher taxes, lower government spending or tighter money. Option A is wrong because a recessionary gap is the opposite case, when equilibrium GDP falls short of full employment. Option C is wrong because the income multiplier measures how much income rises for each rupee of new spending. Option D is wrong because automatic stabilisers are tools, such as progressive taxes, that help narrow these gaps. Exam tip: output above potential is an inflationary gap; output below potential is a recessionary gap.

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Q2.Indian EconomyAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2018, GKHard

Consider the following statements about impact of tax : 1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply. 2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2

The burden of a tax falls more heavily on whichever side of the market is less elastic, the side that cannot easily walk away.

Q5.Indian EconomyAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2017, GKHard

Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST?

  1. A.States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.
  2. B.GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case.
  3. C.The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.
  4. D.The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case.

GST is levied by the Union and the States together on the same supply, and Article 246, which splits taxing powers between them through separate lists, did not allow such a concurrent tax.