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Indian PolityEasyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2024, GS Paper I

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of : 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3

Correct answer

D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The correct answer is D, 1, 2 and 3. Article 368(1) says Parliament may amend 'by way of addition, variation or repeal' any provision of the Constitution.

Article 368 in Part XX lays down both the power and the procedure of amendment. An amendment bill can be introduced in either House, but not in a state legislature, and must be passed in each House by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting. Amendments touching federal features, such as the election of the President or the representation of states, also need ratification by half the state legislatures. The words 'addition, variation or repeal' were made explicit by the 24th Amendment of 1971. In the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973 the Supreme Court held that this power cannot destroy the basic structure.

A, B and C are wrong because each leaves out one of the three ways, while Article 368(1) names all three.

Exam tip: Article 368 = addition, variation or repeal (24th Amendment 1971); limit = basic structure (1973).

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Q1.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IEasy

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

  1. A.the executive and legislature work independently.
  2. B.it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
  3. C.the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
  4. D.the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

In a parliamentary system the government holds office only while it keeps the confidence of the elected House, which makes it answerable every day.

Q2.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IEasy

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People's responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 4 only

The Rule of Law means that power is limited by law, everyone is equal before the law, and individual liberties are protected.

Q3.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2026, GS Paper IHard

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India :

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.

3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.

4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

  1. A.There are four correct statements.
  2. B.There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
  3. C.There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
  4. D.There is no correct statement.
Show answer
Correct answer: D. There is no correct statement.

Each of the four statements gets a basic feature of this committee wrong. The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes has 30 members: 20 elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 by the Rajya Sabha, by proportional representation through the single transferable vote.

Q4.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2026, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.

2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.

3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

  1. A.All the three statements are correct.
  2. B.There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
  3. C.There is only one correct statement.
  4. D.There is no correct statement.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. There is only one correct statement.

Statements 1 and 2 swap the meanings of starred and unstarred questions; only statement 3 is right. A starred question, marked with an asterisk, is one to which the Member wants an oral answer on the floor of the House, and supplementary questions may follow it.

Q5.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2020, Paper IHard

In relation to the powers of the Union Government of India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. A.The Government of India may undertake legislative functions of a territory outside of India by agreement with the Government of that territory
  2. B.The Union Government may not entrust a State Government with functions over matters where executive power of the Union extends
  3. C.The Union Government may direct States for construction and maintenance of means of communication of military importance
  4. D.The Governor may, with consent of Government of India, entrust its officers with functions on matters which fall within the executive power of the State
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Union Government may not entrust a State Government with functions over matters where executive power of the Union extends

It is not correct, because Article 258 expressly lets the President, with a State Government's consent, entrust to it functions on any matter to which the Union's executive power extends.