Skip to content
GK24
GK QuizIndian Polity

Indian Polity Mixed Quiz: Set 58

  • 20 questions
  • 20 minutes
  • Difficulty: Medium
Start Quiz

About this quiz

Set 58 of the Indian Polity mixed quiz has 20 multiple-choice questions from 20 different topics of the subject: Directive Principles of State Policy, Lokpal, CVC and CBI, Prime Minister and Council of Ministers and more. 15 of them were asked in real previous-year papers. A topic quiz checks one chapter; this set revises the whole subject at once, the way an exam paper does, where the next question can come from any chapter. Every question carries an explanation of why the correct option is right and why the others are wrong. Keep to the timer, read the explanations at the end, and go back to the notes of any topic where you slipped.

Questions in this quiz

20 questions with answers and explanations

Q1.Indian PolityAsked in: NDA · NDA-I 2020, GATMedium

Which one of the following Directive Principles was inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976?

  1. A.The State shall minimise inequalities in income
  2. B.Equal justice and free legal aid
  3. C.Promotion of co-operative societies
  4. D.Provision for early childhood care
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Equal justice and free legal aid

Article 39A, which directs the State to secure equal justice and provide free legal aid, was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

Read the full explanation →
Q3.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 only

The 15 percent ceiling is in the Constitution, but the ranks of ministers are not.

Read the full explanation →
Q4.Indian PolityEasy

Who finally decides whether a bill is a money bill or not?

  1. A.The President of India
  2. B.The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. C.The Finance Minister
  4. D.The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: B. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Article 110(3) provides that if a question arises whether a bill is a money bill, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People is final, and the Speaker certifies the bill as such when it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha and when it is presented to…

Read the full explanation →
Q5.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.

4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 1, 2 and 4

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct; only statement 3 is wrong. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed on the recommendations of the committee headed by H.N.

Read the full explanation →
Q7.Indian PolityAsked in: NDA · NDA-I 2024, GATMedium

Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the person holds any office of profit under :

1. the Government of India.

2. any State Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Both 1 and 2

Article 191(1)(a) disqualifies a person who holds an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.

Read the full explanation →
Q8.Indian PolityHard

Consider the following statements about the appointment of the Chief Justice of India and identify the correct ones.

1. The Constitution expressly provides that the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed Chief Justice of India.
2. The convention of appointing the senior-most judge was set aside in 1973 and again in 1977.
3. The outgoing Chief Justice of India recommends the name of his successor.

  1. A.Only 1 and 2
  2. B.Only 2 and 3
  3. C.Only 1 and 3
  4. D.All of 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Only 2 and 3

Statement 1 is wrong: the Constitution nowhere says that the senior-most judge must become Chief Justice of India; seniority is a convention and the Memorandum of Procedure records it, not Article 124.

Read the full explanation →
Q9.Indian PolityAsked in: NDA · NDA-I 2025, GATEasy

The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act provides for

  1. A.an elaborate system of establishing municipal self-government
  2. B.an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government
  3. C.establishing a Commission for Linguistic Minorities
  4. D.the creation of the Jharkhand State
Show answer
Correct answer: B. an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government

The 73rd Amendment gave panchayats constitutional status. The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 came into force on 24 April 1993, the date now marked as National Panchayati Raj Day.

Read the full explanation →
Q11.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Statements 2 and 3 are correct; an amendment bill needs no prior recommendation of the President. Under Article 368, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a minister or a private member, and the President's prior permission is not needed.

Read the full explanation →
Q13.Indian PolityAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2026, GKMedium

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In First-Past-the-Post system of representation, candidate who wins the election may not get majority votes 2. In Proportional Representation system of representation, candidate who wins the election gets majority of votes Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

Under First-Past-the-Post a candidate needs only more votes than any rival, not a majority, while Proportional Representation does not require a winner to secure a majority either.

Read the full explanation →
Q14.Indian PolityHard

Under which Schedule of the Constitution does the Speaker decide questions of disqualification of members on the ground of defection?

  1. A.Eighth Schedule
  2. B.Ninth Schedule
  3. C.Tenth Schedule
  4. D.Twelfth Schedule
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Tenth Schedule

The Tenth Schedule, inserted by the Fifty-second Amendment Act of 1985, carries the anti-defection provisions, and Paragraph 6 of that Schedule says that a question of disqualification on the ground of defection shall be decided by the Chairman or the Speaker of the House concerned, whose decision is final.

Read the full explanation →
Q15.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2018, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements are wrong: Aadhaar proves identity, not citizenship, and it can be deactivated.

Read the full explanation →
Q16.Indian PolityMedium

The power of the President to assent to a Bill, withhold assent, or return it for reconsideration is contained in which Article?

  1. A.Article 110
  2. B.Article 111
  3. C.Article 200
  4. D.Article 368
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Article 111

Once both Houses pass a Bill it is presented to the President, who may declare assent, declare that assent is withheld, which is the absolute veto, or return an ordinary Bill once with a message for reconsideration, which is the suspensive veto; if the Houses pass it again the President…

Read the full explanation →
Q17.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IMedium

With reference to India, consider the following statements :

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct: the Bar Council of India regulates legal education and recognises law colleges. Under the Advocates Act, 1961, only an individual enrolled on a State Bar Council's roll is an advocate.

Read the full explanation →
Q18.Indian PolityAsked in: NDA · NDA-II 2021, GATEasy

Which one of the following is not a writ?

  1. A.Mandamus
  2. B.Habeas Corpus
  3. C.Certiorari
  4. D.Severability
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Severability

Severability is a doctrine used by courts to interpret laws, not a writ. Under Article 32 the Supreme Court, and under Article 226 the High Courts, can issue five writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto.

Read the full explanation →
Q19.Indian PolityAsked in: NDA · NDA-I 2024, GATHard

Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, with respect to which of the following item(s) the Acts of the Parliament of India shall not apply to the State of Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Nagaland by a resolution so decides ?

1. Religious or social practices of Nagas

2. Naga customary law and procedure

3. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources

4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only

Article 371A protects Naga religious and social practices, customary law and procedure, and land ownership, but says nothing about the State's boundaries.

Read the full explanation →
Q20.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IMedium

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 2 only

Only the Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion, because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to it under Article 75(3).

Read the full explanation →
View all quizzes