SSC GK Questions 2026

The correct answer is 52,050. That is the count of public grievances the Ministry reported as disposed of over the period named in the release, and it is listed alongside the other results of its earlier round of the campaign. The first option is wrong because that figure belongs to the grievance appeals, a separate and much smaller category that is reported next to the grievances themselves and is frequently mixed up with them. The second option is wrong; no such figure appears anywhere in the release. The fourth option is wrong because that number is the office space freed in square feet across the Ministry and the Central Armed Police Forces, not a count of grievances at all, and it is included here precisely because a hurried reader may pick the largest number on the page. Read each figure with its unit before answering.

The correct answer is 2 October to 31 October 2026. The campaign is split in two, and this is the second and longer part, in which the work actually happens across offices. The first option is wrong, and is the commonest error, because those are the dates of the preparation phase that comes before it; candidates who remember only one pair of dates usually give this answer. The second option is wrong because the implementation phase does not begin on the first of the month and does not end in the middle of it. The fourth option is wrong because the drive is completed within October and does not extend into the following month. A useful memory hook is that the implementation phase opens on the second day of October and runs to the last day of that month, so the whole of the month except its first day is covered.

The correct answer is the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, usually written as DARPG, which the release names as the organiser of the drive. The Ministry of Home Affairs is a participant, not the organiser, and its role is to run the campaign within its own divisions, attached offices and field formations. The Department of Personnel and Training is wrong; although it also deals with administration, the release does not connect it with this campaign. The Cabinet Secretariat is wrong as well, since monitoring inside the Ministry is described as happening at its own highest level rather than through that office. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is wrong because the campaign described here runs across central government offices and their field units, not local bodies. Aspirants should hold the organiser, the participating ministry and the two phase dates together, since questions about this campaign usually test one of those three.

The correct answer is 77 countries. The declaration was one of the chief outcomes of the first edition of the World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit, held in Mumbai, and the backgrounder lists it alongside the other results of the event, including the business transactions generated by the WAVES Bazaar. The first option is wrong; no such count appears anywhere in the document. The second option is wrong, and is a trap, because that number belongs to the registrations drawn by the Create in India Challenges from creators abroad, not to the countries adopting the declaration. The fourth option is wrong for a similar reason: a three-figure count of countries is mentioned in the summary of the summit's participation, not in connection with the declaration. Aspirants should separate the three tallies carefully, since the summit description packs several country counts into a few lines.

The correct answer is 23 March 2026. MyWAVES was opened inside the existing streaming platform on that date, and it changed the service from something people only watched into something they could contribute to, by letting citizens make, upload and share original short, vertical and episodic content. The first option is wrong because that is the date the streaming platform itself was launched at the film festival in Goa, not the date the creator section appeared. The second option is wrong because that is when the first edition of the summit opened in Mumbai. The fourth option is wrong because that is the day the Gems of India Challenge pilot began, which runs through the creator section but is a later and separate step. This question rewards candidates who keep a small timeline of the four dates rather than remembering them one at a time.

The correct answer is the 55th International Film Festival of India in Goa, where the platform was unveiled in November as the public broadcaster's public-service streaming service. The first WAVES Summit in Mumbai is wrong, and is the most tempting distractor because the summit carries the same name: it was held later, in May of the following year, and the streaming platform already existed by then. The India International Trade Fair is wrong, as the backgrounder connects the launch to a film festival and not to a trade exhibition. The Kolkata International Film Festival is wrong as well; although it is also a film festival, the release names the national festival held in Goa and gives its edition number. The safe way to carry this is as a set: the broadcaster, the festival with its edition number, the venue state and the launch date, since a question may supply any one of them and ask for another.

The correct answer is imprisonment of up to three years or a fine of up to fifty lakh rupees, or both. The prohibition itself sits in Section 42(3)(c) of the Act, which bars tampering with telecommunication identifiers, while the neighbouring clause covers obtaining SIMs or identifiers through fraud, cheating or impersonation. The first option is wrong because it understates both the jail term and the maximum fine laid down. The third option is wrong because the statute plainly provides for imprisonment as well as a fine, and indeed allows both together. The fourth option is wrong on two counts: it stretches the term of imprisonment beyond what the Act prescribes and it wrongly removes the fine. Two further points are worth carrying: such offences are cognizable and non-bailable under Section 42(7), and under Section 42(6) a person who abets or promotes the offence is liable to the same punishment as the offender.

The correct answer is the GSMA, the Global System for Mobile Communications Association. The backgrounder says it oversees the worldwide allocation of the Type Allocation Code, handing codes to manufacturers and brand owners, who then assign unique device identities to individual handsets. TRAI is wrong, because the regulator appears in the release only in connection with the rule restricting messaging for a day after a re-issued SIM is activated, not with code allocation. The Department of Telecommunications is wrong as well; it advises citizens on what to avoid and runs the registration and verification machinery in India, but the global code pool is not its to allocate. The International Telecommunication Union is wrong because the release does not assign it this role. A useful chain to memorise is that the association allocates the code, the manufacturer assigns the full identity, and the Indian portals then register it.

The correct answer is fifteen digits. The International Mobile Equipment Identity is described as a unique number of that length which identifies a mobile device on a telecom network, and the first eight of those digits make up the Type Allocation Code that identifies the model or type of the handset. Ten digits is wrong; that is the length of a mobile telephone number in India and the two are often confused, but a telephone number belongs to the connection while this number belongs to the device. Twelve digits is wrong as well and matches no identifier described in the backgrounder. Eighteen digits is wrong because it overstates the length, and no identifier of that size is named. Candidates should also remember the way to read one off a handset, which is by dialling the short code given in the release, and that a dual-SIM phone normally carries two such numbers, one for each slot.

The correct answer is twelve approved and five operational. The backgrounder states that the government has cleared this many semiconductor projects under the Semicon India programme, and that five commercial semiconductor units were already running by September of that year. The first option is wrong on both counts, understating the approvals as well as the units in production. The third option is wrong because it inflates the approvals and the operating units alike, and no such tally appears in the release. The fourth option is wrong for the same reason and is the furthest from the stated position. The point worth carrying forward is the gap between approvals and operations: a project being approved does not mean a plant is producing, which is why the release reports the two numbers separately. Candidates should also link this with the Production Linked Incentive schemes and the India Semiconductor Mission, the two instruments named as driving this build-up.

The correct answer is more than 600. The backgrounder records that the event brought together this many exhibitors, of whom close to three hundred were international companies, and treats that mix as a sign of the global interest now being shown in the country's semiconductor and electronics ecosystem. The first option is wrong because it falls short of the stated count and appears nowhere in the release. The third option is wrong for the opposite reason; it overstates the number, and no such figure is given. The fourth option is wrong as well, since a four-figure count is not claimed anywhere in the document. The useful pairing for an examination is the total against the international share, because a question may supply one and ask for the other, and the second figure is also the one that shows how much of the participation came from outside India.

The correct answer is Amitesh Kumar Sinha, Chief Executive Officer of the India Semiconductor Mission. The backgrounder names him as the moderator of the session, which brought senior representatives of the leading industry associations together to discuss how deeper cooperation could speed up the country's semiconductor and electronics plans. The Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog is wrong, as that office is not connected with this session in the release. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is wrong because the discussion concerned manufacturing and industry coordination rather than monetary policy, and no central bank official is mentioned. The Chairman of ISRO is wrong for the same reason; the space agency has no role in the panel described. Aspirants should remember the mission's name along with the office, because questions often ask which body the moderator headed rather than his name, and the India Semiconductor Mission is itself a frequently tested institution.

The correct answer is that it is the largest healthcare scheme in the world. The Prime Minister said the annual cover now reaches more than sixty crore beneficiaries, and on that basis described the initiative as the biggest of its kind anywhere. The second option is wrong, because nothing in the message speaks of the scheme being wound up or merged; the tone of the anniversary message is the opposite, pointing to expansion and to record savings on medical expenses. The third option is wrong because the message identifies the poor and the middle class as the groups that have gained, not a restricted category of government employees. The fourth option is wrong because the cover described is an annual health cover, and the message separately credits the Ayushman Arogya Mandirs with strengthening primary care, showing that the two parts of the initiative are distinct rather than the cover being limited to outpatient visits.

The correct answer is over 500 crore. The Prime Minister used this figure to argue that healthcare is moving closer to every doorstep, since the centres named Ayushman Arogya Mandirs deliver primary care in neighbourhoods and villages rather than in distant hospitals. The option of over 100 crore is wrong, as the message names a far larger count and this figure only looks plausible to someone recalling the number of beneficiaries instead. Over 300 crore is wrong as well; it appears nowhere in the release and is included to catch a half-remembered answer. Over 700 crore is wrong because it overshoots the stated figure, and no higher count is claimed anywhere in the anniversary message. Candidates should note that this figure counts visits, not people, so it is much larger than the beneficiary count and the two must never be interchanged in an answer.

The correct answer is Rs 5 lakh. In his anniversary message the Prime Minister said that more than sixty crore beneficiaries now have access to an annual health cover of this amount, and that the reach of the cover is what makes the initiative the largest healthcare scheme in the world. Rs 1 lakh is wrong; no such figure appears in the message, and a cover that small would not carry a family through a serious hospital admission, which is the burden the scheme was designed to lift. Rs 3 lakh is wrong for the same reason and is offered only as a plausible-looking lower figure. Rs 10 lakh is wrong because the cover named is half that amount, though aspirants sometimes confuse it with other insurance products. The safest way to hold this is to remember the pair together: the cover amount on one side and the beneficiary count on the other, because examiners frequently ask for one and supply the other.

The correct answer is Safety Integrity Level-4, usually written SIL-4. The release describes the train protection system as heavily dependent on technology and therefore obliged to carry safety certification of the highest order, which it identifies as SIL-4. Level-2 is wrong because it is a lower grade and would not satisfy a system that can apply brakes on a running train without human action. Level-3 is wrong for the same reason; it is one step below the grade actually named. Level-5 is wrong because the release names Level-4 as the highest order of certification here, so a fifth level is not what the system is held to. In examinations this fact is often paired with the system's purpose, so remember together that KAVACH is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection system, that it guards against Signal Passing at Danger, and that it is certified at SIL-4.

The correct answer is 108 route kilometres. That is the length of the Malkajgiri-Kamareddi section in the Hyderabad Division on which the system was carried up from the older edition to the newer one. The figure of 208 is wrong; no such length is mentioned anywhere in the announcement and it is offered only as a near-miss distractor. The figure of 1,465 is the trap in this question: that is the spread of the earlier Version 3.2 across South Central Railway as a whole, not the stretch newly upgraded, and aspirants who read hurriedly often swap the two. The figure of 512 is wrong as well, since it appears nowhere in the release. The safest way to hold this pair in memory is to remember that the newly upgraded piece is small and the older version's footprint on the zone is more than ten times larger.

The correct answer is South Central Railway. The Ministry of Railways said that Version 4.0 of the train protection system was put into service for the first time on this zone, on the Malkajgiri-Kamareddi section of the Hyderabad Division. The zone was the natural choice because the previous edition, Version 3.2, was already working there across a long stretch of route, and the operating experience gathered from it shaped the improvements built into the newer version. Northern Railway is wrong, because the release names no such commissioning on that zone. Western Railway is wrong for the same reason; the announcement is confined to the southern zone named in it. East Coast Railway is also wrong, as the section upgraded lies in the Hyderabad Division, which belongs to South Central Railway and not to the eastern coastal zone. Candidates should tie the version number, the zone, the division and the section together, since a question may name any one of them.

The correct answer is Article 20-21. During a National Emergency, Article 359 lets the President suspend the right to move the courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. After the experience of the 1975–77 Emergency, when detentions could not be challenged in court (the Supreme Court had upheld this in the ADM Jabalpur case of 1976), the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 laid down that the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended. Article 20 protects an accused person against ex post facto criminal laws, double jeopardy and self-incrimination; Article 21 protects life and personal liberty.

Article 19 is the opposite case. Under Article 358, its six freedoms are suspended automatically when a National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression, though not on the ground of armed rebellion. That is why the option containing Article 19 is the least likely answer of all. The other options pair Articles from the Right to Equality, whose enforcement the President can suspend by an order under Article 359. Remember it as a pair: 20 and 21 always survive, 19 goes first.

The correct answer is Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978). Article 21 says that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to "procedure established by law". In A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950) the Supreme Court read this narrowly: any procedure laid down by a validly made law was enough, however unfair. In Maneka Gandhi, a case about the impounding of a passport, the Court rejected that approach and held that the procedure must be fair, just and reasonable, not arbitrary or oppressive. In effect this brought Article 21 close to the American idea of due process.

This decision opened the way for courts to read many rights into Article 21, such as the rights to live with dignity, to a speedy trial and, later, to privacy. The other options are real cases on different questions: Gopalan is the narrow view that Maneka Gandhi overturned, Golaknath (1967) held that Parliament could not abridge Fundamental Rights, and Minerva Mills (1980) held that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is part of the basic structure.