SSC GD Constable 2025 Previous Year GK Questions with Answers

The correct answer is upto one year. While a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, Parliament can by law extend the normal five-year term of a State Legislative Assembly (Article 172) and of the Lok Sabha (Article 83) by up to one year at a time. There is also an outer limit: the extension cannot continue beyond six months after the proclamation has ceased to operate. During the Emergency of 1975–77 the term of the Fifth Lok Sabha was extended in this way.

The other durations come from elsewhere in the chapter and are meant to confuse. Six months is the period for which an approved emergency lasts, and also the outer limit after an emergency ends. One month is the time within which Parliament must approve a National Emergency. Nine months has no basis. The logic of the rule is that elections may be impossible during a war or rebellion, so the Constitution lets the existing legislatures continue, but only one year at a time and never for long after the crisis has passed.

The correct answer is Seven. When the Supreme Court began in 1950, Article 124(1) provided for a Chief Justice of India and not more than seven other judges, eight in all, "until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number". Parliament has used that power several times as the Court's workload grew: to 11 judges in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978, 26 in 1986, 31 in 2009 and 34 in 2019, and in May 2026 an ordinance raised the sanctioned strength to 38, the Chief Justice and 37 judges.

The wrong options are nearby numbers designed to catch half-remembered facts. Eight is the total including the Chief Justice, which is exactly why it tempts; six and five have no basis. Read the question carefully: "besides the Chief Justice" means the answer excludes the Chief Justice. Note also that the number of judges is fixed by an Act of Parliament, the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, and not by a constitutional amendment, which is why it can be changed relatively easily.

The correct answer is Council of Ministers to aid and advise President. Article 74(1) says there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head to aid and advise the President, who shall act in accordance with that advice. The 42nd Amendment (1976) made the advice binding, and the 44th Amendment (1978) allowed the President to send it back once for reconsideration. Article 74(2) adds that no court can inquire whether, and what, advice was given.

The other options describe appointments made under other Articles. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President under Article 124. The Vice-President is not appointed at all; he or she is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament under Article 66. The chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article 280. Article 74 is the foundation of parliamentary government in India: it is the reason the President acts as a constitutional head while real power lies with the Council of Ministers.

The correct answer is 11. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51A, clauses (a) to (j). The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added an eleventh, clause (k), which asks a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his or her child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen. So today there are eleven Fundamental Duties, all in a single Article.

Each wrong option is a number from the same story, which is why it tempts. Eight is the number of duties the Swaran Singh Committee recommended. Ten is the number added in 1976, before the 2002 amendment. Six is the number of Fundamental Rights today, after the right to property was removed in 1978. Keep the sequence in one line: the committee suggested 8, Parliament added 10 in 1976, and the 86th Amendment made it 11 in 2002. Questions often ask "how many were added in 1976" as well, and there the answer is ten.

The correct answer is C, Assam. Sattriya was developed in the sattras, the Vaishnavite monasteries of Assam, by the saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th century. He created it as part of his one-act plays called 'Ankia Naat' to spread devotion to Lord Krishna, and for centuries it was performed only by male monks, the bhokots, inside the sattras. The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognised Sattriya as a classical dance of India in the year 2000. It is still closely tied to the sattras of Majuli, the river island in the Brahmaputra. A is wrong because West Bengal is known for folk forms such as the Purulia Chhau, not Sattriya. B is wrong because the monasteries of Arunachal Pradesh, such as Tawang, are Buddhist and have masked dances, not Sattriya. D is wrong because Sikkim's monasteries are also Buddhist and are known for the Cham masked dance. Exam tip: Sattriya, Assam, Srimanta Sankardev, the sattras, and classical status in 2000.

The correct answer is B, Kuchipudi. The dance takes its name from its birthplace, the village of Kuchipudi, earlier called Kuchelapuram, in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. It grew as a dance-drama tradition performed by Brahmin men, and the 17th-century saint Siddhendra Yogi gave it its classic form with the dance-drama 'Bhama Kalapam'. A famous item is the Tarangam, in which the dancer performs on the rim of a brass plate, sometimes with a pot of water on the head. Today it is performed by both women and men as a solo art. A is wrong because Kathakali is from Kerala and is known for its heavy make-up and colourful costumes. C is wrong because Kathak developed in north India, in the courts and temples of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. D is wrong because Mohiniattam is a graceful solo dance performed by women in Kerala. Exam tip: Kuchipudi, Andhra Pradesh, Krishna district, Siddhendra Yogi, and dancing on a brass plate in Tarangam.

The correct answer is B, milk of magnesia. Milk of magnesia is a milky white suspension of magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)2, in water. It is a mild base, so it neutralises the extra hydrochloric acid in the stomach that causes acidity and heartburn; the reaction gives magnesium chloride and water. In larger doses it draws water into the intestine and works as a laxative. This antacid is a textbook example of neutralisation, where an acid and a base react to form a salt and water. A is wrong because fused magnesia is magnesium oxide melted in an electric arc furnace and used as a heat-resistant material in furnace linings. C is wrong because magnesia alba is a basic magnesium carbonate, a white powder. D is wrong because caustic-calcined magnesia is magnesium oxide made by heating at lower temperatures and used in industry and farming. Exam tip: milk of magnesia is Mg(OH)2, an antacid base that neutralises stomach HCl.

The correct answer is B, 1831. In 1831 the British scientist Michael Faraday showed that a changing magnetic field produces an electric current in a nearby coil. He moved a magnet in and out of a coil of wire and saw a galvanometer needle move, and he also found that switching a current on and off in one coil induced a current in a second coil wound on the same iron ring. This is electromagnetic induction, the working principle of the electric generator (dynamo) and the transformer. The SI unit of capacitance, the farad, is named after him. A is wrong because 1853 is more than twenty years after the discovery. C is wrong because 1820 is the year Hans Christian Oersted found that an electric current produces a magnetic field, the reverse effect. D is wrong because 1875 has no link with this discovery. Exam tip: Oersted 1820, current makes magnetism; Faraday 1831, changing magnetism makes current.

The correct answer is C, Calcium oxychloride. Calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2) is bleaching powder, and the chlorine it releases removes colour from cotton and linen in the textile industry. It is made by passing chlorine gas over dry slaked lime, Ca(OH)2. When it reacts with water or a dilute acid it gives out chlorine, and this chlorine oxidises the colouring matter into colourless substances. Bleaching powder is also used to bleach wood pulp in paper mills and to disinfect drinking water, which is why it smells of chlorine. A is wrong because sodium carbonate is washing soda, used to remove the permanent hardness of water and in making glass. B is wrong because sodium hydrogencarbonate is baking soda, used in cooking and as an antacid. D is wrong because calcium chloride is a drying agent that absorbs moisture, not a bleach. Exam tip: bleaching powder CaOCl2, washing soda Na2CO3·10H2O, baking soda NaHCO3.

The correct answer is D, Impala will die of starvation due to higher population. In this food chain grass is the producer, the impala is the herbivore and the hyena is the predator that keeps the impala population in check. If all hyenas are removed, impalas multiply quickly because nothing hunts them. The larger herd overgrazes the grassland until there is not enough food, and then many impalas starve and their numbers crash. This chain reaction, where removing a top predator upsets every level below it, is called a trophic cascade. It is also why predators such as tigers are protected: they keep an ecosystem in balance. A is wrong because without predators the impala population cannot stay stable; it first rises sharply. B is wrong because the impalas' good time lasts only until the grass runs out. C is wrong because the grassland is the first to suffer, from overgrazing. Exam tip: remove the predator, the prey multiplies, food runs out and the prey starves; only about 10 per cent of energy passes to the next level.

The correct answer is B, Seventh Plan. The Seventh Five Year Plan (1985–90), launched under Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, had the slogan 'food, work and productivity'. It aimed to raise food grain production, create jobs and improve productivity, and it laid stress on modern technology. It achieved a growth rate of about 6 per cent against its target of 5 per cent. The Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (1989) for rural employment also came in this period. A is wrong because the Third Plan (1961–66) aimed at a self-reliant economy but failed after the wars of 1962 and 1965 and a severe drought, which led to the plan holidays. C is wrong because the Fourth Plan (1969–74) aimed at 'growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance'. D is wrong because the Sixth Plan (1980–85) focused mainly on removing poverty. Exam tip: Seventh Plan, 1985–90, Rajiv Gandhi, 'food, work and productivity'.

The correct answer is A, Agricultural development. The First Five Year Plan (1951–56) gave top priority to agriculture, irrigation and power, because India faced food shortages after Partition and needed to feed its people first. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru, who chaired the Planning Commission. Big river projects such as Bhakra-Nangal and Hirakud were started in this period. The Plan aimed at a growth rate of 2.1 per cent and achieved about 3.6 per cent, so it is counted as a success. B is wrong because the development of heavy industries was the focus of the Second Plan (1956–61), based on the Mahalanobis model. C is wrong because rapid industrialisation was also the goal of the Second Plan, not the First. D is wrong because privatisation of industries came with the economic reforms of 1991, forty years later. Exam tip: First Plan, agriculture and Harrod-Domar; Second Plan, heavy industry and Mahalanobis.

The correct answer is C, Gorges. In its upper course a river flows fast down steep slopes, so it cuts downward into the rock more than it spreads sideways. This vertical erosion makes deep, narrow valleys with steep sides: V-shaped valleys and, where the rock is hard, gorges. Waterfalls and rapids also belong to this young stage of a river. A famous example is the Indus gorge in the Himalayas, and the Narmada flows through a marble gorge at Bhedaghat near Jabalpur. A is wrong because oxbow lakes form in the lower course, when a loop of a meander is cut off from the main channel. B is wrong because meanders, the wide loops of a river, form in the middle and lower course, where the land is gentle and the river swings sideways. D is wrong because floodplains form in the lower course, where the river spreads out and leaves silt during floods. Exam tip: upper course, V-shaped valley, gorge and waterfall; lower course, meander, oxbow lake, floodplain and delta.

The correct answer is D, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka. The Nilgiri Hills, the 'Blue Mountains', rise where the borders of these three states meet, at the junction of the Western and Eastern Ghats. Their highest peak is Doddabetta (2,637 m), near Ooty (Udhagamandalam) in Tamil Nadu. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, set up in 1986, was India's first biosphere reserve and covers parts of all three states. The hills are home to the Toda tribe and the Nilgiri tahr. A is wrong because Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh lie in the Himalayas, which are young fold mountains far to the north. B is wrong because the Gujarat-Rajasthan-Haryana belt is the region of the Aravallis, among India's oldest fold mountains, but they are not the Nilgiris. C is wrong because Assam, Nagaland and Tripura are in the north-east, far from these southern hills. Exam tip: the Nilgiris join the Western and Eastern Ghats at the Tamil Nadu-Kerala-Karnataka tri-junction; the highest peak is Doddabetta.

The correct answer is C, Cherrapunji and Mawsynram. Both are in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya and each gets well over 1,080 cm of rain in a year. The Bay of Bengal branch of the south-west monsoon enters a funnel-shaped valley south of the Khasi Hills, is forced to rise sharply and pours its moisture on the windward slopes. Mawsynram, about 15 km west of Cherrapunji (Sohra), is usually counted as the wettest place on Earth, with an average near 1,187 cm. A is wrong because Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and Neriamangalam in Kerala are rainy places in the Western Ghats but get far less rain. B is wrong because Gangtok is the capital of Sikkim and Amboli is a Maharashtra hill station, and neither comes close to that total. D is wrong because Pasighat in Arunachal Pradesh and Agumbe in Karnataka, called the 'Cherrapunji of the South', also receive much less. Exam tip: the wettest pair is Mawsynram and Cherrapunji, both on the windward side of Meghalaya's Khasi Hills.

The correct answer is A, Ajatashatru. He was Bimbisara's son and took the throne of Magadha after him in the Haryanka dynasty. Bimbisara, a contemporary of the Buddha, built Magadha's power through marriage alliances and the conquest of Anga, with Rajagriha as his capital. Ajatashatru pushed it further: he fought Kosala, defeated the Vajji confederacy of the Licchavis, and built a fort at the village of Pataligrama on the Ganga. The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajagriha in his reign, soon after the Buddha's death. B is wrong because Udayin was Ajatashatru's son, who came later and made Pataliputra the capital. C is wrong because Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya dynasty around 322 BCE, nearly two centuries later. D is wrong because Ashoka was Chandragupta Maurya's grandson. Exam tip: Haryanka order, Bimbisara, then Ajatashatru, then Udayin; Rajagriha first, Pataliputra later.

The correct answer is C, Prakrit and Brahmi. Most of Ashoka's edicts were written in Prakrit, the language people spoke, in the Brahmi script, so that ordinary subjects could understand his message of Dhamma. Brahmi was first deciphered by James Prinsep in 1837, and the edicts call the king 'Devanampiya Piyadasi', beloved of the gods. In the north-west, near today's Pakistan, the same Prakrit was written in the Kharosthi script, and at Kandahar in Afghanistan edicts were written in Greek and Aramaic. A is wrong because Ashoka did not use Sanskrit for his edicts, and the Devanagari script developed many centuries later. B is wrong because Kharosthi was used only in a few north-western edicts such as Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra, and Pali is the language of the Buddhist canon, not of the edicts. D is wrong because Greek appears only at Kandahar and Latin was never used. Exam tip: Ashoka's edicts, Prakrit language in Brahmi script; Prinsep read them in 1837.

The correct answer is B, State Election Commission. The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 gave Municipalities constitutional status and made the State Election Commission responsible for their elections. It added Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG) and the Twelfth Schedule with 18 subjects for urban local bodies. Article 243ZA hands the electoral rolls and the conduct of municipal elections to the same State Election Commission that Article 243K creates for panchayat elections. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor. The Act came into force on 1 June 1993. A is wrong because there is no constitutional body called a District Election Commission. C is wrong because a Divisional Election Commission also does not exist under the Constitution. D is wrong because the Election Commission of India, under Article 324, conducts elections to Parliament, state legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President, not to local bodies. Exam tip: 73rd Amendment for panchayats (Part IX), 74th for municipalities (Part IXA), and both are run by the State Election Commission.

The correct answer is C, Governor. Under Article 171, the Governor nominates one-sixth of the members of a State Legislative Council. These members must have special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, the co-operative movement or social service. The rest are elected: one-third by local bodies, one-third by the members of the Legislative Assembly, one-twelfth by graduates and one-twelfth by teachers. The Council's total strength cannot be more than one-third of the Assembly's strength and not less than 40. A is wrong because the State Election Commissioner conducts elections to panchayats and municipalities and makes no nominations to the Council. B is wrong because the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha, not to a state Council. D is wrong because the Chief Minister heads the state government, but the Constitution gives the power of nomination to the Governor. Exam tip: Council formula, 1/3 local bodies, 1/3 MLAs, 1/12 graduates, 1/12 teachers and 1/6 nominated by the Governor.

The correct answer is A, Article 226. It gives every High Court the power to issue writs within its territory. A High Court can issue the five writs, habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto, not only to enforce Fundamental Rights but also 'for any other purpose', that is, for ordinary legal rights. This makes the writ power of a High Court wider than that of the Supreme Court, which under Article 32 issues writs only for Fundamental Rights. Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right, while Article 226 is not. B is wrong because Article 246 divides law-making subjects between the Union and the states through the Seventh Schedule. C is wrong because Article 254 settles a clash between a central law and a state law on a Concurrent List subject. D is wrong because Article 233 deals with the appointment of district judges. Exam tip: writs by the Supreme Court under Article 32, by High Courts under Article 226, and the High Court's power is the wider one.