RRB NTPC GK Questions 2026

The correct answer is A, Babur. Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur founded the Mughal Empire in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat on 21 April 1526, and he ruled till his death in 1530. He came from Fergana in Central Asia and traced his descent from Timur on his father's side and Chengiz Khan on his mother's side. After Panipat he defeated Rana Sanga of Mewar at Khanwa in 1527 and the Afghans at Ghaghra in 1529. He wrote his memoirs, the Baburnama, in Turkish, and he is buried in Kabul. B is wrong because Jahangir was the fourth Mughal emperor, ruling from 1605 to 1627. C is wrong because Sher Shah Suri was not a Mughal at all; he was an Afghan who drove Humayun out and founded the Sur dynasty in 1540. D is wrong because Humayun was Babur's son and the second Mughal emperor. Exam tip: the order of the great Mughals is Babur, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb.

The correct answer is B, Bindusara. Bindusara was the son of Chandragupta Maurya and became the second ruler of the Mauryan Empire in about 297 BCE, ruling till about 273 BCE. Greek writers called him Amitrochates, from the Sanskrit 'Amitraghata', which means slayer of enemies. He kept up friendly ties with the Greek kingdoms of West Asia, and the Greek ambassador Deimachus lived at his court at Pataliputra. He is said to have extended the empire into the Deccan, and his son Ashoka served as viceroy at Ujjain before taking the throne. A is wrong because Kumaragupta I was a Gupta ruler of the fifth century CE, remembered for founding Nalanda. C is wrong because Ashoka was Bindusara's son and succeeded him in about 273 BCE, being crowned in 268 BCE. D is wrong because Kanishka was a Kushan king who ruled from 78 CE, the year the Saka era begins. Exam tip: the Mauryan order is Chandragupta (322 BCE), Bindusara (297 BCE), Ashoka (273 BCE); father, son, grandson.

The correct answer is B, Mughal's Rule in India. On 21 April 1526 Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi, the last Sultan of Delhi, at Panipat in present-day Haryana, and this victory ended the Delhi Sultanate and started Mughal rule in India. Babur's army was much smaller, but he won with field guns handled by the Ottoman experts Ustad Ali and Mustafa and with the 'tulughma' tactic of encircling the enemy from the flanks. Ibrahim Lodi died on the battlefield, the only Delhi Sultan to die in battle. Panipat saw two more decisive battles: 1556, when Akbar's general Bairam Khan defeated Hemu, and 1761, when Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated the Marathas. A is wrong because the French never ruled India; their power ended with the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760. C is wrong because British East India Company rule began after the Battle of Plassey in 1757. D is wrong because the Delhi Sultanate began in 1206 with Qutb-ud-din Aibak and actually ended at Panipat in 1526. Exam tip: Panipat 1526 Babur beats Ibrahim Lodi; 1556 Akbar beats Hemu; 1761 Abdali beats the Marathas.

The correct answer is B, President. A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament becomes an Act only when the President gives assent to it, as laid down in Article 111. The President has three choices: give assent, withhold assent, or return the bill (if it is not a Money Bill) to Parliament for reconsideration. If both Houses pass the returned bill again, with or without changes, the President has to give assent. The Constitution fixes no time limit, so this delaying power is often called a 'pocket veto'. For state bills the Governor plays the same role under Article 200. A is wrong because the Law Minister only pilots bills; a minister's approval cannot turn a bill into law. C is wrong because the Supreme Court can strike down a law later but does not approve it before it is made. D is wrong because the Prime Minister heads the government but the formal assent is the President's. Exam tip: Parliament passes, the President assents (Article 111); the Governor assents for states (Article 200).

The correct answer is D, Part IV. The Directive Principles of State Policy are placed in Part IV of the Constitution, from Article 36 to Article 51. They are instructions to the government to build a welfare state, such as equal pay for equal work, free legal aid, village panchayats, a uniform civil code and protection of the environment. The idea was borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, which in turn took it from Spain. Unlike Fundamental Rights they cannot be enforced in a court, but Article 37 makes them fundamental in the governance of the country. A is wrong because Part II, Articles 5 to 11, deals with citizenship. B is wrong because Part III, Articles 12 to 35, contains the Fundamental Rights. C is wrong because Part I, Articles 1 to 4, deals with the Union and its territory. Exam tip: Part III = Fundamental Rights (12 to 35), Part IV = Directive Principles (36 to 51), Part IVA = Fundamental Duties (51A).

The correct answer is D, Article 72. This Article gives the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment, and to suspend, remit or commute a sentence. It applies in three cases: punishment by a court martial, an offence against a law made by the Union, and every sentence of death. The President alone can pardon a death sentence; the Governor, whose similar power is in Article 161, cannot. The five words to remember are pardon (wipes out the conviction), commutation (lighter kind of punishment), remission (shorter period), respite (lesser sentence for a special reason such as pregnancy) and reprieve (temporary stay). A is wrong because Article 55 describes the manner of electing the President. B is wrong because Article 81 gives the composition of the Lok Sabha. C is wrong because Article 63 says there shall be a Vice-President of India. Exam tip: pardon power is 72 for the President and 161 for the Governor; only the President can pardon a death sentence or a court-martial sentence.

The correct answer is A, Articles 74 and 75. These two Articles create the Council of Ministers that actually runs the Union government. Article 74 says there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President, and the President acts on that advice. Article 75 says the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, the other ministers are appointed on the Prime Minister's advice, the Council is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, and its size cannot exceed 15 per cent of the Lok Sabha strength, a limit added by the 91st Amendment in 2003. The matching Articles for the states are 163 and 164. B is wrong because Article 71 is about disputes in presidential elections and Article 72 about the President's power of pardon. C is wrong because Articles 79 and 80 deal with the constitution of Parliament and the composition of the Rajya Sabha. D is wrong because Article 76 creates the Attorney-General and Article 77 covers the conduct of government business. Exam tip: Centre 74-75, states 163-164; collective responsibility is to the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is C, Article 84. This is the Article that lists who is qualified to be a member of Parliament. Under Article 84 a person must be a citizen of India, must take an oath before a person authorised by the Election Commission, and must be at least 30 years old for the Rajya Sabha or 25 years old for the Lok Sabha. Parliament can add other qualifications by law, which it did through the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Remember the pair: qualifications are in Article 84, disqualifications are in Article 102. A is wrong because Article 105 deals with the powers and privileges of the Houses and their members. B is wrong because Article 85 covers the sessions of Parliament, prorogation and dissolution. D is wrong because Article 80 gives the composition of the Rajya Sabha. Exam tip: 84 for qualification, 102 for disqualification, 25 years for the Lok Sabha and 30 years for the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is B, England. The 2019 ICC Men's Cricket World Cup, the 12th edition, was played in England and Wales from 30 May to 14 July 2019. In the final at Lord's, England and New Zealand both scored 241, the super over was also tied at 15 each, and England were declared champions on boundary count, 26 to 17, their first World Cup title, under captain Eoin Morgan; Ben Stokes made 84 not out and was Player of the Match. Kane Williamson of New Zealand was Player of the Tournament, Rohit Sharma scored the most runs (648, with five centuries) and Mitchell Starc took the most wickets (27). Option A is wrong because Pakistan finished fifth and missed the semi-finals on net run rate. Option C is wrong because India topped the league table but lost the semi-final to New Zealand at Manchester. Option D is wrong because Australia lost the other semi-final to England at Birmingham. Exam tip: 2019 = England beat New Zealand at Lord's on boundary count; 2023 = Australia beat India at Ahmedabad.

The correct answer is D, three. Raja Parba is Odisha's three-day festival of womanhood held in mid-June, when the sun enters Mithuna (Gemini). The three days are Pahili Raja, Raja Sankranti or Mithuna Sankranti, and Basi Raja, and a ritual bath of Mother Earth, Vasumati Snana, closes it on the fourth morning. The word Raja comes from 'rajaswala', a menstruating woman: Bhudevi, Mother Earth, is believed to menstruate during these days, so no ploughing or digging is done, and unmarried girls rest, wear new clothes, play on rope swings and eat poda pitha. It marks the onset of the monsoon and the coming farming season. Option A is wrong because five is not the count of Raja days; the festival is not a five-day affair. Option B is wrong because six days belong to no Raja tradition. Option C is wrong because the fourth day, Vasumati Snana, is only a closing bath and the festival itself is counted as three days. Exam tip: Raja Parba = Odisha, three days, Mithuna Sankranti in June, swings and poda pitha.

The correct answer is D, Andhra Pradesh. The Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve lies in the Seshachalam hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh, across the old Chittoor and Kadapa districts, and was notified in 2010 as India's 17th biosphere reserve. The Tirumala temple of Lord Venkateswara stands on these very hills, and the reserve includes the Sri Venkateswara National Park. It is famous for red sanders, the valuable red-wood tree found almost nowhere else in the world, and shelters the slender loris, the golden gecko and the Indian giant squirrel. Option A is wrong because Tamil Nadu's biosphere reserves are the Gulf of Mannar and its shares of the Nilgiri and Agasthyamalai reserves. Option B is wrong because Karnataka's only biosphere reserve is its part of the Nilgiri. Option C is wrong because Kerala shares the Nilgiri and Agasthyamalai reserves but has no Seshachalam. Exam tip: Seshachalam = Andhra Pradesh, red sanders, Tirumala hills, notified 2010 as the 17th reserve.

The correct answer is A, Cold Desert. The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve in the Lahaul and Spiti region of Himachal Pradesh was notified in 2009 as India's 16th biosphere reserve. It covers the Pin Valley National Park, the Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary and the high-altitude wetlands of Chandratal and Sarchu, a trans-Himalayan landscape above 3,000 metres that gets very little rain. Its wildlife includes the snow leopard, Himalayan ibex, red fox, blue rock pigeon and the lammergeier or bearded vulture, the bird that drops bones from a height to eat the marrow. Option B is wrong because Seshachalam, in Andhra Pradesh and famous for red sanders, followed in 2010 as the 17th reserve. Option C is wrong because Agasthyamalai, on the Kerala and Tamil Nadu border, was notified in 2001. Option D is wrong because Dehang-Debang in Arunachal Pradesh dates from 1998. Exam tip: the sequence at the end of the list is Cold Desert 2009 (16th), Seshachalam 2010 (17th), Panna 2011 (18th); the first was Nilgiri in 1986.

The correct answer is D, Chennai. The All India Chess Federation, the national body for chess, was founded in 1951 and has its headquarters at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Chennai. It is affiliated to FIDE, the world chess federation founded in Paris in 1924 and now based in Lausanne, and to the Indian Olympic Association. Chennai is called the chess capital of India: Viswanathan Anand, the first Indian Grandmaster (1988) and five-time world champion, is from the city, D Gukesh, who became world champion in December 2024, grew up there, and the 44th Chess Olympiad of 2022 was held at nearby Mamallapuram. Option A is wrong because Bengaluru houses no national chess body; it is known for the National Cricket Academy. Option B is wrong because Hyderabad is linked with badminton through the Gopichand academy, not with the AICF. Option C is wrong because Mumbai is the home of the BCCI, the cricket board. Exam tip: AICF = Chennai (1951), BCCI = Mumbai, Hockey India and AIFF = New Delhi, FIDE = Lausanne.

The correct answer is D, Ministry of Finance. Under the Coinage Act 2011 the Government of India alone has the right to mint coins, and the work is handled by the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance. Coins are struck at the four India Government Mints at Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Noida, run by the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL), and the Reserve Bank only puts them into circulation as the Government's agent under Section 38 of the RBI Act 1934. The same split explains why the one-rupee note carries the signature of the Finance Secretary, while notes of two rupees and above are issued by the RBI and signed by its Governor. Option A is wrong because the Ministry of External Affairs handles foreign relations. Option B is wrong because the Ministry of Home Affairs handles internal security and police. Option C is wrong because the Ministry of Mines deals with mining and minerals, not coinage. Exam tip: coins and the one-rupee note = Government of India (Finance Ministry); notes of two rupees and above = RBI.

The correct answer is A, Candela. Luminous intensity is the amount of visible light a source sends out in a given direction per unit solid angle, and its SI base unit is the candela (cd), roughly the light of one ordinary candle. It is one of the seven SI base units: metre for length, kilogram for mass, second for time, ampere for electric current, kelvin for temperature, mole for amount of substance and candela for luminous intensity. Do not mix it up with the lumen, the unit of luminous flux (total light output), or the lux, the unit of illuminance (lumens per square metre falling on a surface). Option B is wrong because the mole measures amount of substance, 6.022 × 10²³ particles. Option C is wrong because the kelvin measures thermodynamic temperature. Option D is wrong because the ampere measures electric current. Exam tip: the seven base units in one line: m, kg, s, A, K, mol, cd; candela = intensity, lumen = flux, lux = illuminance.

The correct answer is C, Pascal. Pressure is force acting per unit area, so its SI unit is the newton per square metre, which is given the special name pascal (Pa) after the French scientist Blaise Pascal, who stated the law of transmission of pressure in liquids used in hydraulic brakes and lifts. One pascal is a very small pressure, so larger units are common: 1 bar = 10⁵ Pa, 1 atmosphere = 101,325 Pa = 760 mm of mercury, and weather reports use the hectopascal (1 hPa = 100 Pa), while blood pressure is still read in mm Hg. Option A is wrong because the volt is the SI unit of electric potential difference (1 V = 1 J/C). Option B is wrong because the ampere is the SI base unit of electric current. Option D is wrong because the ohm is the SI unit of electrical resistance (1 Ω = 1 V/A). Exam tip: pressure = force ÷ area, N/m² = pascal; and the electrical trio: volt for voltage, ampere for current, ohm for resistance.

The correct answer is D, [M L T⁻²]. Newton's second law gives force = mass × acceleration. Mass has the dimension [M], and acceleration is velocity divided by time, that is [L T⁻¹] ÷ [T] = [L T⁻²]. Multiplying, force = [M L T⁻²]. Its SI unit is the newton, 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻², and its CGS unit is the dyne, with 1 N = 10⁵ dyne. Weight, tension, thrust and friction are all forces, so they share the same dimensional formula, which is a favourite exam trick. Option A is wrong because [M⁰ L³ T⁰] is simply [L³], the dimension of volume. Option B is wrong because [M L⁻³ T⁰] is mass per unit volume, that is density. Option C is wrong because [M⁰ L T⁻¹] is length per unit time, the dimension of speed or velocity. Exam tip: build from the definition: velocity [L T⁻¹], acceleration [L T⁻²], force [M L T⁻²], work and energy [M L² T⁻²], power [M L² T⁻³], pressure [M L⁻¹ T⁻²].

The correct answer is B, Pellagra. Pellagra is caused by a lack of vitamin B3, niacin, also called nicotinic acid, and is remembered by the three Ds: dermatitis, a rough dark rash on skin exposed to sunlight, diarrhoea from the gut, and dementia from the nervous system; untreated, a fourth D, death, follows. It was common where maize was the staple food, because the niacin in maize is bound and hard to absorb and maize is poor in tryptophan, the amino acid from which the body makes niacin. Niacin is found in meat, fish, groundnuts, whole grains and pulses. Option A is wrong because anaemia comes from a shortage of iron, vitamin B12 or folic acid, not B3. Option C is wrong because beriberi is the deficiency disease of vitamin B1, thiamine, affecting nerves and the heart. Option D is wrong because scurvy, with bleeding gums, is caused by a lack of vitamin C, ascorbic acid. Exam tip: B1 = beriberi, B2 = cheilosis, B3 = pellagra, B12 = pernicious anaemia, C = scurvy, D = rickets.

The correct answer is D, inflation. Inflation is a sustained rise in the general price level, measured in India by the CPI and the WPI. It is fought in three ways: monetary measures by the RBI such as raising the repo rate or CRR, fiscal measures such as higher taxes and lower government spending, and direct or administrative measures. Price control, rationing through the Public Distribution System and stock limits under the Essential Commodities Act 1955 are the direct measures: they cap what sellers may charge and how much each family may buy, so that scarce goods are shared and hoarding is checked. Option A is wrong because reflation is the deliberate effort to push prices and demand up after a slump, the opposite aim. Option B is wrong because disinflation is only a slowing of the inflation rate, not a problem that needs rationing. Option C is wrong because deflation is a fall in the general price level, when governments spend more rather than control prices. Exam tip: inflation = prices rise, deflation = prices fall, disinflation = prices rise more slowly, reflation = pushing prices up again.

The correct answer is C, Economy budget. By the balance between estimated receipts and expenditure, a budget is of only three types. A balanced budget has receipts equal to expenditure. A surplus budget has receipts higher than expenditure, and a government may use it to cool an overheated, inflationary economy. A deficit budget has expenditure higher than receipts; it is the normal case in India and is used to push demand and growth, the gap being met by borrowing. 'Economy budget' is not a recognised type at all; it is a distractor. In India the budget is called the Annual Financial Statement under Article 112, is presented on 1 February since 2017, and the first budget of independent India was presented by R. K. Shanmukham Chetty on 26 November 1947. Option A is wrong because a deficit budget is a real type. Option B is wrong because a balanced budget is a real type. Option D is wrong because a surplus budget is a real type. Exam tip: three types by balance, balanced, surplus and deficit; India normally runs a deficit budget.