The Special Provisions in Article 371G of the Constitution of India relate to the state of :
- A.Jammu & Kashmir
- B.Jharkhand
- C.Mizoram
- D.Nagaland
Correct answer
C. Mizoram
Explanation
The correct answer is C, Mizoram. Article 371G sits in Part XXI of the Constitution, which holds temporary, transitional and special provisions, and was inserted by the 53rd Amendment Act, 1986, when Mizoram was made a full state. It protects Mizo customary law and practice, social and religious usage, and the administration of civil and criminal justice based on that customary law: a law of Parliament on these subjects applies to Mizoram only if the Legislative Assembly of the state decides by resolution that it should. The Assembly is also fixed at a minimum of forty members. Option A is wrong because the special provision for Jammu and Kashmir was Article 370, whose operation was withdrawn in August 2019. Option B is wrong because Jharkhand has no such article; it was carved out of Bihar in 2000 by an ordinary reorganisation Act. Option D is wrong because Nagaland is covered by Article 371A, added by the 13th Amendment of 1962. Exam tip: 371A Nagaland, 371B Assam, 371C Manipur, 371F Sikkim, 371G Mizoram, 371H Arunachal Pradesh.
Practice Questions
View allIn exercise of the power conferred by sub-Section (1) of Section 29 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act 2009, the Central Government authorise which institute to lay down the curriculum and evaluation procedure for elementary education?
- A.N.C.T.E.
- B.N.C.E.R.T.
- C.N.I.E.P.A.
- D.N.I.O.S.
Show answer
Correct answer: B. N.C.E.R.T.
Explanation
The correct answer is B, N.C.E.R.T. Section 29(1) of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act 2009 says the curriculum and the evaluation procedure for elementary education shall be laid down by an academic authority notified by the appropriate government, and the Central Government notified the National Council of Educational Research and Training for the schools under it, while the states notified their own SCERTs. Section 29(2) then binds that authority to constitutional values, the all-round development of the child, learning through activity and discovery, teaching in the mother tongue as far as practicable, and continuous and comprehensive evaluation. A is wrong because the N.C.T.E. frames norms for teacher education and teacher eligibility, which the Act deals with in Section 23. C is wrong because N.I.E.P.A. works on educational planning and administration. D is wrong because N.I.O.S. runs open and distance schooling. Exam tip: in the RTE Act, Section 29 gives the academic authority, NCERT, and Section 23 the teacher qualifications through NCTE.
Who among the following is one of the founder members of Bhartiya Jana Sangh?
- A.KM Munshi
- B.Baldev Singh
- C.Minoo Masani
- D.Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Explanation
The correct answer is D, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee. Syama Prasad Mookerjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh and is counted as its founder member and first president. The party was launched at Delhi in October 1951 as a nationalist alternative to the Congress. Mookerjee had resigned from Nehru's cabinet in 1950 over the Nehru-Liaquat pact, and he had earlier led the Hindu Mahasabha and served as Vice-Chancellor of Calcutta University. He died in 1953 in detention in Kashmir while agitating against the state's special status, after which Deendayal Upadhyaya built up the party's organisation; it was reorganised as the Bharatiya Janata Party in 1980. A is wrong because K M Munshi was a Constituent Assembly member and Congress leader who later joined the Swatantra Party. B is wrong because Baldev Singh was independent India's first Defence Minister. C is wrong because Minoo Masani was a founder of the Swatantra Party. Exam tip: Bharatiya Jana Sangh 1951 with Syama Prasad Mookerjee, Swatantra Party 1959 with C Rajagopalachari and Minoo Masani.
Who advised State Government on legal matters?
- A.Attorney General
- B.Advocate General
- C.Solicitor General
- D.Chief Justice of the High Court
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Advocate General
Explanation
The correct answer is B, Advocate General. The Advocate General is the highest law officer of a state and advises the state government on legal matters. Article 165 provides for the office: the Governor appoints a person qualified to be a judge of a High Court, the Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor, and the Governor fixes the remuneration. The duties are to advise the state government on the legal questions referred to the office, to discharge the legal duties assigned by the Governor and to appear for the state in the High Court. A is wrong because the Attorney General, under Article 76, is the first law officer of the Union and not of a state. C is wrong because the Solicitor General assists the Attorney General at the Union level and is not a constitutional post. D is wrong because the Chief Justice of a High Court decides cases and does not advise the government. Exam tip: Article 76 for the Attorney General of India, Article 165 for the Advocate General of a state.
Who among the following can attend the meetings of both houses of Parliament while not being a member of either House?
- A.The Solicitor General of India
- B.The Vice-president of India
- C.The Comptroller and auditor General of India
- D.The Attorney General of India
Show answer
Correct answer: D. The Attorney General of India
Explanation
The correct answer is D, The Attorney General of India. Article 88 gives the Attorney General the right to speak in and otherwise take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, any joint sitting and any committee of which the office holder is named a member, but without the right to vote. The Attorney General is appointed by the President under Article 76, must be qualified to be a judge of the Supreme Court, is the chief legal adviser to the Government of India and is not a member of either House. Ministers enjoy the same right under Article 88. Option A is wrong because the Solicitor General is only a statutory law officer who assists the Attorney General and has no such constitutional right. Option B is wrong because the Vice-President presides over the Rajya Sabha alone, as its ex officio Chairman. Option C is wrong because the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General reach Parliament through the President. Exam tip: Article 76 for appointment and Article 88 for the right to speak without a vote.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes came into existence as a separate commission in which of the following year?
- A.2000
- B.2006
- C.2004
- D.2002
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2004
Explanation
The correct answer is C, 2004. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes began work as a separate body in 2004. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 divided the earlier joint National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two commissions, leaving Article 338 for the Scheduled Castes and inserting Article 338A for the Scheduled Tribes. The new commission has a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members appointed by the President, inquires into complaints about the safeguards given to tribes, advises on their development and sends its reports to the President, who places them before Parliament. Option A is wrong because in 2000 the joint commission was still functioning. Option B is wrong because by 2006 the commission had already been at work for two years. Option D is wrong because the amendment that created it was passed only in 2003. Exam tip: 89th Amendment of 2003 brought Article 338A, and the commission started in 2004.