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Indian PolityEasyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · 2020

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

  1. A.all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
  2. B.the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
  3. C.the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
  4. D.the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by before completion of a fixed term

Correct answer

B. the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

Explanation

The correct answer is B, the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it. A parliamentary system rests on the executive answering to the legislature, so the council of ministers stays in office only while it keeps the confidence of the House. India took this form from Britain: the ministers are drawn from the legislature, they are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha under Article 75, and a no-confidence motion carried against them brings the whole ministry down. The President is the nominal head while the Prime Minister is the real head of the executive. A is wrong because a government of all parties is a national or coalition arrangement, not a feature of the system itself. C is wrong because the people elect the legislature, and it is the legislature that makes and unmakes the government; direct removal by voters belongs to no Indian office. D is wrong because a fixed term the House cannot cut short describes the presidential system. Exam tip: parliamentary means responsible government, presidential means fixed tenure.

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Q1.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · 10 Oct 2021Medium

With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.1 and 3
  4. D.2 and 3
Show answer

Correct answer: A. 1 only

Explanation

The correct answer is A, 1 only. Only the first statement holds, so the other combinations fall away. India follows single citizenship and a single domicile, which means a person is a citizen of India alone and not separately of a state, unlike the United States where a citizen also belongs to a state. Citizenship is dealt with in Articles 5 to 11 and in the Citizenship Act of 1955, which allows it to be acquired by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation or the incorporation of territory. Statement 2 is wrong because Article 58 asks only that a candidate for President be a citizen of India; a citizen by naturalisation is equally eligible. Statement 3 is wrong because the Act provides for loss of citizenship by renunciation, termination and deprivation, and a naturalised citizen can be deprived of it for fraud or disloyalty. B, C and D are wrong because each of them includes one of these two mistaken statements. Exam tip: single citizenship, single domicile - and Articles 5 to 11 are the citizenship articles.

Q2.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · UPSC Civil Services Exam (Prelims) 2010Medium

With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. A.Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
  2. B.Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
  3. C.Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
  4. D.None of the statements given above is correct
Show answer

Correct answer: D. None of the statements given above is correct

Explanation

The correct answer is D, none of the statements given above is correct. Every one of the three descriptions gets a detail wrong, so the fourth option is the only one left. Lok Adalats are organised under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 to settle disputes by compromise, and their award is treated as a decree of a civil court against which no appeal lies. A is wrong because a Lok Adalat takes up both a case already pending before a court and a dispute at the pre-litigation stage. B is wrong because it can settle a compoundable criminal offence as well as a civil dispute; only a non-compoundable offence is kept out. C is wrong because a Lok Adalat is made up of a serving or retired judicial officer together with other persons, usually a social worker and a member of the legal profession. Exam tip: remember the Act of 1987 and the rule that a Lok Adalat award is final, with no appeal.

Q3.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · 23 Aug, 2015Easy

To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India is a provision made in the

  1. A.Preamble of the Constitution
  2. B.Directive principles of State Policy
  3. C.Fundamental Rights
  4. D.Fundamental Duties
Show answer

Correct answer: D. Fundamental Duties

Explanation

The correct answer is D, Fundamental Duties. Upholding and protecting the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is listed as a duty of every citizen, so the provision sits among the Fundamental Duties and not in any other part. The Fundamental Duties were added as Part IVA, Article 51A, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee; ten were added then and an eleventh, on the education of children, came with the 86th Amendment of 2002. They are moral obligations and cannot be enforced by a court on their own. A is wrong because the Preamble speaks of the unity and integrity of the nation as an ideal but lays no duty on a citizen. B is wrong because the Directive Principles address the State, not the citizen. C is wrong because Fundamental Rights are claims a citizen holds against the State. Exam tip: Article 51A came with the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

Q4.Indian PolityAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · 24 Aug 2014Easy

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

  1. A.Second Schedule
  2. B.Fifth Schedule
  3. C.Eighth Schedule
  4. D.Tenth Schedule
Show answer

Correct answer: D. Tenth Schedule

Explanation

The correct answer is D, Tenth Schedule. The Tenth Schedule carries the anti-defection provisions, so a legislator who deserts the party on whose ticket he or she was elected can be disqualified under it. The schedule was inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 and applies to members of Parliament and of the state legislatures alike. A member loses the seat for voluntarily giving up party membership or for voting against the party whip, and the presiding officer of the House decides such a case. A merger escapes disqualification only when at least two-thirds of the members of that legislature party agree to it. A is wrong because the Second Schedule fixes the salaries and allowances of the President, Governors, judges and other high offices. B is wrong because the Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. C is wrong because the Eighth Schedule lists the recognised languages of India. Exam tip: link the pair - Tenth Schedule with the 52nd Amendment of 1985.

Q5.Indian PolityAsked in: SSC CGL · 14 Jul 2023, Shift 1Easy

Who is the Administrative Head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department?

  1. A.Accountant General
  2. B.Principal Accountant General
  3. C.Director General
  4. D.The Comptroller and Auditor General
Show answer

Correct answer: D. The Comptroller and Auditor General

Explanation

The correct answer is D, The Comptroller and Auditor General. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India heads the Indian Audit and Accounts Department, the organisation through which the audit of Union and State accounts is actually carried out. The office is created by Article 148. The CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under hand and seal, holds office for six years or until the age of sixty five, whichever comes first, and can be removed only in the manner laid down for a judge of the Supreme Court. Article 149 sets out the duties, and the audit reports go to the President or the Governor, who lays them before the legislature, where the Public Accounts Committee takes them up. A is wrong because an Accountant General heads a state level office under the CAG. B is wrong because Principal Accountant General is a senior rank of the same kind. C is wrong because a Director General serves inside the department rather than at its head. Exam tip: Article 148, the CAG heads the audit department, six years or age sixty five.