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Current Affairs Quiz

SSC CGL Current Affairs Quiz: 9 October 2026

  • 25 questions
  • 25 minutes
  • Difficulty: Medium
Useful for:SSC CGL
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About this quiz

This SSC CGL current affairs quiz puts 25 multiple-choice questions to you from 20 stories published on 9 October 2026 that matter for the SSC CGL general awareness section. The questions are the same verified MCQs that accompany GK24's articles, chosen here for their relevance to SSC CGL, and every one carries a full explanation of the correct option and of why the other options are wrong. Attempt the quiz within the timer, review the explanations at the end, and read the stories behind the questions on their articles or the day's edition page. Bookmark it for a quick revision before the exam.

Questions in this quiz

25 questions with answers and explanations

Q1.Important DaysEasy

On which date is World Cotton Day observed every year?

  1. A.5 October
  2. B.7 October
  3. C.10 October
  4. D.16 October
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 7 October

Explanation

The correct answer is 7 October. The United Nations General Assembly set aside this date as World Cotton Day through resolution 75/318, and the observance draws attention to the place of cotton in economic development, in international trade and in the fight against poverty, particularly in developing and least developed countries. This year the Permanent Missions of India and Mali to the United Nations marked the day with a joint event at the United Nations Headquarters in New York. Option A, 5 October, is the date of the teachers’ observance and has nothing to do with cotton. Option C, 10 October, and option D, 16 October, are also wrong: no cotton observance falls on either date, and both are sometimes confused with other health and food related days on the United Nations calendar. For the examination hall, fix the pair together, World Cotton Day and 7 October, along with the resolution number that created it.

Q2.EconomyEasy

Which country is India’s largest source of foreign direct investment?

  1. A.Mauritius
  2. B.Singapore
  3. C.United States
  4. D.Japan
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Singapore

Explanation

The correct answer is Singapore. The city state is India’s largest source of foreign direct investment, with cumulative inflows of roughly USD 194.68 billion between April 2000 and March 2026, and its institutional investors, among them GIC and Temasek, hold significant positions across the Indian economy. This standing is one reason the Union Finance Minister’s engagements there centre on capital markets, taxation and digital financial connectivity. Option A, Mauritius, was for years the leading route for investment into India and is still a major one, which is exactly why it is the most tempting wrong answer here. Option C, the United States, and option D, Japan, are both large investors and important economic partners, but neither tops the table of cumulative inflows. For objective papers, hold Singapore at the first place and Mauritius immediately behind it as the pair most often swapped in questions.

Q3.EconomyEasy

By how much have daily coal supplies to the power sector risen from the September low, as stated by the Ministry of Coal?

  1. A.About 12%
  2. B.About 24%
  3. C.About 36%
  4. D.About 48%
Show answer
Correct answer: C. About 36%

Explanation

The correct answer is about 36%. The Ministry of Coal said that daily supplies of coal to the power sector have climbed roughly 36% from the low point reached in September, and that the October average is around 9% higher than the September average. That rise, together with stronger rail movement, is the ministry's main answer to reports of a looming power shortage. Option A, about 12%, is far below the stated improvement and matches no figure given. Option B, about 24%, is also invented and would understate the recovery the ministry described. Option D, about 48%, overstates it; no such number appears anywhere in the clarification. Candidates should keep the pair of percentages apart: the 36% figure measures the gain over the September trough, while the smaller 9% figure compares the whole of October with the whole of September.

Q4.InternationalEasy

Where was the 15th meeting of the AITIGA Joint Committee held?

  1. A.ASEAN Secretariat, Jakarta, Indonesia
  2. B.Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
  3. C.Putrajaya, Malaysia
  4. D.Bangkok, Thailand
Show answer
Correct answer: A. ASEAN Secretariat, Jakarta, Indonesia

Explanation

The correct answer is the ASEAN Secretariat in Jakarta, Indonesia. ASEAN hosted the 15th Joint Committee of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement there from 6 to 9 October 2026, along with meetings of sub-committees, and the round was conducted in hybrid format. Option B, Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi, is wrong for this round, although the next Joint Committee meeting is indeed to be held in India, in January 2027. Option C, Putrajaya in Malaysia, is a plausible distractor because the co-chair from the other side was Malaysia's Deputy Secretary General for Trade, but Malaysia only supplied a chair and not the venue. Option D, Bangkok in Thailand, is another ASEAN capital whose delegates attended but which did not host. The pairing to remember is the 15th round in Jakarta and the sixteenth in India.

Q5.NationalEasy

The Health Ministry's draft amendment on advertising of prescription medicines seeks to amend which rules?

  1. A.The Drugs Rules, 1945
  2. B.The Drugs and Magic Remedies Rules, 1955
  3. C.The Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011
  4. D.The Clinical Establishments Rules, 2012
Show answer
Correct answer: A. The Drugs Rules, 1945

Explanation

The correct answer is the Drugs Rules, 1945. The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has proposed an amendment to these rules so that the requirement of prior Central Government sanction for advertising drugs listed in Schedule H, Schedule H1 and Schedule X extends to entities licensed to sell and distribute medicines, and not only to manufacturers. The vehicle is a new sub-rule inserted under Rule 65. Option B names a different legal instrument concerned with objectionable advertisements of remedies, which is not what the ministry has moved to change here. Option C deals with food and not with medicines, and is administered by a separate regulator. Option D concerns the registration and standards of clinical establishments, again outside the subject of drug advertisements. The point to carry is that schedules H, H1 and X sit inside the Drugs Rules of 1945.

Q6.Government SchemesMedium

How many Khadi design collections has the Centre of Excellence for Khadi at NIFT, Delhi developed?

  1. A.1,024
  2. B.1,750
  3. C.2,129
  4. D.3,400
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2,129

Explanation

The correct answer is 2,129. The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises stated that the Centre of Excellence for Khadi at NIFT, Delhi has developed that many Khadi design collections across multiple categories, as part of the effort to place Khadi in contemporary fashion and lifestyle. The same account records the launch of Navyug Khadi with 710 new products and of a wellness and yoga wear collection named Svadha. Options A, B and D are invented totals that appear nowhere in the ministry's account, and a candidate who confuses the design collections with the product count would wrongly pick a smaller figure. The safest way to hold these numbers is as a pair, namely the larger number for design collections at the NIFT centre and the smaller one for products under Navyug Khadi.

Q7.NationalMedium

CTIL, which marked its ninth anniversary in New Delhi, is housed at which institution?

  1. A.Indian Institute of Foreign Trade
  2. B.Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations
  3. C.National Law University, Delhi
  4. D.Indian Institute of Public Administration
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Indian Institute of Foreign Trade

Explanation

The correct answer is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade. The Centre for Trade and Investment Law is housed there, and its Head, Prof. James J. Nedumpara, also holds the WTO India Chair. He said the centre was established to strengthen India's trade capacity as a broader element of economic statecraft, and noted that it has given more than four thousand legal opinions. The Vice Chancellor of the institute, Dr. K. Rangarajan, spoke at the anniversary about how specialised trade-policy institutions had grown there. Options B, C and D name respected bodies in economics, law and public administration, but none of them hosts the centre. The anniversary was held at the Prime Minister's Museum and Library in New Delhi, which was the venue and not the parent institution, a distinction worth keeping clear.

Q8.NationalEasy

Which body has issued the Draft DRM-based Digital Addressable Systems Audit Manual, 2026?

  1. A.Securities and Exchange Board of India
  2. B.Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
  3. C.Prasar Bharati
  4. D.Central Board of Film Certification
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India

Explanation

The correct answer is the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India. TRAI is the regulator for telecom as well as for broadcasting and cable services, and it is TRAI that has placed the draft manual for DRM-based digital addressable systems in the public domain for comments. The paper gives auditors a clause-wise method for checking platforms that fall under Schedule X of the Interconnection (Addressable Systems) Regulations of 2017. The Securities and Exchange Board of India, in option A, regulates the securities market and has no role in television distribution audits. Prasar Bharati, in option C, is the public service broadcaster that runs Doordarshan and All India Radio; it is a broadcaster, not the authority that frames audit procedures for private distribution platforms. The Central Board of Film Certification, in option D, certifies films for public exhibition and is likewise unconnected with the audit of addressable systems. Only TRAI frames and issues such manuals under the interconnection rules.

Q9.State NewsEasy

Proceeds from the PM Mementos e-auction are directed to which programme?

  1. A.Swachh Bharat Mission
  2. B.Namami Gange
  3. C.Jal Jeevan Mission
  4. D.Atal Bhujal Yojana
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Namami Gange

Explanation

The correct answer is Namami Gange. Gifts and mementos presented to the Prime Minister are offered through a public e-auction, and the money they raise is directed to the Namami Gange programme, which works to conserve and rejuvenate the river Ganga. This is what gives the initiative its purpose: an object of personal courtesy becomes a contribution to a national mission. Option A, the Swachh Bharat Mission, deals with sanitation and cleanliness and is not named as the recipient of these proceeds. Option C, the Jal Jeevan Mission, is concerned with household tap water supply, and option D, the Atal Bhujal Yojana, with groundwater management; neither of them receives money from the auction of the mementos. Aspirants should link the PM Mementos e-auction firmly with Ganga conservation, since this pairing is the most frequently asked part of the scheme.

Q10.EconomyMedium

What is the reserve price fixed for the HIL (India) Limited land parcel at Najafgarh, New Delhi?

  1. A.Rs 629.69 crore
  2. B.Rs 829.69 crore
  3. C.Rs 1,029.69 crore
  4. D.Rs 16.60 crore
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Rs 829.69 crore

Explanation

The correct answer is Rs 829.69 crore. That is the floor below which the freehold parcel at Najafgarh Industrial Area will not be sold, and every bid in the electronic auction has to start from it. The bidding then moves up in steps of at least Rs 1 crore per acre. Option A and option C are figures close to the real one and are the kind of distractor a paper setter builds by shifting the first digit, so the number has to be learnt exactly. Option D, Rs 16.60 crore, is also drawn from this auction, but it is the earnest money a bidder must deposit to enter the process, not the reserve price; mixing the two up is the commonest error in questions of this type. A further figure worth separating from both is the processing fee of Rs 24 lakh, which is payable only by the highest bidder.

Q11.DefenceEasy

Who inaugurated the Project Seabird Phase IIA residential infrastructure at Naval Base, Karwar?

  1. A.The Chief of the Naval Staff
  2. B.General NS Raja Subramani, Chief of Defence Staff
  3. C.The Raksha Mantri
  4. D.Vice Admiral Vivek Dahiya, Director General Seabird
Show answer
Correct answer: B. General NS Raja Subramani, Chief of Defence Staff

Explanation

The correct answer is General NS Raja Subramani, Chief of Defence Staff. He is also Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs, and he opened the new housing for senior sailors and naval defence civilians, along with trunk utility and amenity infrastructure, at the Karwar base. Option A is wrong because the Chief of the Naval Staff is not named in connection with this inauguration at all. Option C is wrong because the Defence Minister did not perform the ceremony; the announcement came from the Ministry of Defence, but the inauguration was done by the Chief of Defence Staff. Option D names an officer who was indeed present, Vice Admiral Vivek Dahiya, the Director General Seabird, but he attended the ceremony along with other senior officers rather than inaugurating the facilities. Candidates should link Project Seabird with Karwar and with the Chief of Defence Staff for this event.

Q12.NationalEasy

On which date will the National Human Rights Commission, India mark its 33rd Foundation Day?

  1. A.2 October
  2. B.10 December
  3. C.12 October
  4. D.24 October
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 12 October

Explanation

The correct answer is 12 October. The Commission was set up on 12 October 1993, so its Foundation Day falls on that date every year, and the 33rd edition will be held at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi in 2026. Option A, 2 October, is Gandhi Jayanti and has no link with the founding of the Commission. Option B, 10 December, is observed the world over as Human Rights Day, which candidates often confuse with the Indian Commission's Foundation Day; the two are separate occasions. Option D, 24 October, is United Nations Day and again unrelated to the NHRC. A sure way to keep this straight in the examination hall is to remember that Human Rights Day belongs to the United Nations calendar, while 12 October belongs to the NHRC of India and marks the year 1993.

Q13.Science & TechnologyEasy

What is the theme of the 10th India Mobile Congress 2026?

  1. A.'Scale Without Boundaries'
  2. B.'Digital India for All'
  3. C.'Connecting the Unconnected'
  4. D.'Innovation to Scale'
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 'Scale Without Boundaries'

Explanation

The correct answer is Scale Without Boundaries. The 10th edition of the India Mobile Congress is being held under this theme from 7 to 10 October 2026 at Yashobhoomi in New Delhi, and it was formally inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 8 October 2026. The congress brings together technology companies, startups, innovators, policymakers, researchers and industry leaders from India and other countries for discussion on next-generation connectivity and emerging technology. Options B, C and D are slogans of the kind used in digital and telecom campaigns, which makes them plausible distractors, but none of them is the theme of this edition. In the examination, link three things together: the tenth edition, the venue Yashobhoomi, and the theme Scale Without Boundaries, because questions on a conference almost always ask for the theme or the venue.

Q14.NationalMedium

Which institute is conducting the five-day Geriatric Care Training Programme at Diu?

  1. A.National Institute of Social Defence
  2. B.National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development
  3. C.National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences
  4. D.National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration
Show answer
Correct answer: A. National Institute of Social Defence

Explanation

The correct answer is the National Institute of Social Defence, which works under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and is running the course with the Office of the Collector, Diu, and the administration of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. Its Senior Citizen Division is conducting the sessions through Course Coordinator Ms. Asha Sharma and Junior Consultant Ms. Ritu Dandriyal. Option B is a body that works in the field of child development and women, not elderly care training of this kind. Option C is a mental health and neurosciences institute, and option D works on educational planning, so neither is connected with this programme. Candidates should fix in mind that geriatric care and welfare of senior citizens fall under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, with the National Institute of Social Defence as its training arm.

Q15.Reports & IndicesEasy

Who heads the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education, Women, Children, Youth and Sports that presented the 382nd report on the National Testing Agency?

  1. A.Dr K. Radhakrishnan
  2. B.Mukul Wasnik
  3. C.Harivansh
  4. D.Jayant Chaudhary
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Mukul Wasnik

Explanation

The correct answer is Mukul Wasnik. He is a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha and heads the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education, Women, Children, Youth and Sports, which placed the 382nd report on "Reforms and Strengthening of the National Testing Agency" before the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha on 9 October 2026. Option A is wrong because Dr K. Radhakrishnan, the former Secretary of the Department of Space, chaired the separate High-Level Committee of Experts on examination reform and only appeared before this panel as a witness. Option C is wrong because Harivansh is the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and had no role in heading this committee. Option D is wrong because Jayant Chaudhary handles skill development as a minister and is not the chairman of this committee. For the examination, pair the report number with the chairman and the House.

Q16.EconomyEasy

What is the base year used in the draft guideline for compiling Gross State Domestic Product estimates by the expenditure approach?

  1. A.2011-12
  2. B.2017-18
  3. C.2022-23
  4. D.2024-25
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2022-23

Explanation

The correct answer is 2022-23. The National Statistics Office has prepared the draft guideline for compiling Gross State Domestic Product estimates from the expenditure side with 2022-23 as the base year, and the whole framework is described as working under the revised base year arrangement. Options A, B and D are wrong because the release names only one base year for this exercise and it is not any of these; they are offered as plausible distractors drawn from the way base years are usually revised. For the examination, hold three things together: the body that issued the document (the National Statistics Office), the ministry it belongs to (Statistics and Programme Implementation) and the base year 2022-23. Also note that comments from stakeholders were invited until 28 October 2026 through the ministry website.

Q17.NationalEasy

Which position did Team India secure at the 48th WorldSkills Competition held in Shanghai?

  1. A.5th
  2. B.8th
  3. C.10th
  4. D.13th
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 10th

Explanation

The correct answer is 10th. Team India secured the tenth position at the 48th WorldSkills Competition, WorldSkills Shanghai 2026, taking 6 silver medals and 20 Medals for Excellence. Options A, B and D are wrong because they do not match the placing recorded for India at this edition; they are near-miss figures of the kind paper setters use as distractors. The competition ran from 22 to 27 September 2026 at the National Exhibition and Convention Center in Shanghai, and India fielded its largest contingent so far, 70 competitors spread across 63 skills. Remember the ranking together with the medal tally, because questions often pair the two. WorldSkills itself is described as the world’s leading international skills competition, bringing young professionals from participating countries and regions to show excellence in vocational and technical trades.

Q18.InternationalEasy

Who was elected President of the Inter-Parliamentary Union at its 153rd Assembly?

  1. A.Harivansh, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
  2. B.Milton Dick, Speaker of Australia’s House of Representatives
  3. C.Dr Anurag Singh Thakur, MP, Lok Sabha
  4. D.Dr Sasmit Patra, MP, Rajya Sabha
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Milton Dick, Speaker of Australia’s House of Representatives

Explanation

The correct answer is Milton Dick, Speaker of Australia’s House of Representatives. He was declared elected President of the Inter-Parliamentary Union on 9 October 2026, the last day of the 153rd Assembly held in Arusha, United Republic of Tanzania. Option A is wrong because Harivansh, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, led the Indian Parliamentary Delegation and was among those who personally congratulated the new President. Option C is wrong because Dr Anurag Singh Thakur spoke in the debate on the emergency item and took part in the Standing Committee on Democracy and Human Rights. Option D is wrong because Dr Sasmit Patra attended the Standing Committee on United Nations Affairs and the hearing with the candidates for the presidency, but was not a candidate himself. Link the office, the person and the host city when revising.

Q19.Science & TechnologyMedium

Which organisation developed the artificial-intelligence based ASTR tool used to identify fraudulent mobile connections?

  1. A.C-DOT
  2. B.TRAI
  3. C.BSNL
  4. D.NIC
Show answer
Correct answer: A. C-DOT

Explanation

The correct answer is C-DOT. ASTR is described as the artificial-intelligence based tool of C-DOT and forms one layer of India’s defence against fraudulent communications; it has helped disconnect over 82 lakh fraudulent mobile connections. Option B is wrong because the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India is the sector regulator and issues tariff orders and regulations rather than building this detection tool. Option C is wrong because BSNL is a state-owned telecom service provider. Option D is wrong because the National Informatics Centre builds government information technology infrastructure and websites. For the examination, hold the five layers together: blocking of spoofed international calls, ASTR, the Sanchar Saathi platform for citizen participation, the Digital Intelligence Platform for sharing intelligence, and measures for emerging channels of fraud.

Q20.Summits & ConferencesEasy

Which two bodies jointly organised the "AI for Good Lab Workshop: From Strategy to Impact" at India Mobile Congress 2026?

  1. A.MeitY and UNESCO
  2. B.Department of Telecommunications and the International Telecommunication Union
  3. C.TRAI and the World Bank
  4. D.NITI Aayog and the World Economic Forum
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Department of Telecommunications and the International Telecommunication Union

Explanation

The correct answer is the Department of Telecommunications and the International Telecommunication Union. The workshop was organised jointly by the department, which sits in the Ministry of Communications, and the Union, and was inaugurated by Jyotiraditya M. Scindia at India Mobile Congress 2026 in New Delhi. Options A, C and D are wrong because none of those pairings is named as the organiser; they are offered as plausible combinations of Indian bodies and international agencies. Dr Bilel Jamoussi, Deputy Director of the Telecommunication Standardization Bureau of the Union, and Amit Agrawal, Secretary of the Department of Telecommunications, were among those present. The minister described the Lab’s move from Geneva to New Delhi as mirroring the path artificial intelligence must take from global talk to local solutions.

Q21.Important DaysMedium

Through which United Nations General Assembly resolution was World Cotton Day proclaimed?

  1. A.Resolution 70/218
  2. B.Resolution 72/204
  3. C.Resolution 75/318
  4. D.Resolution 77/300
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Resolution 75/318

Explanation

The correct answer is resolution 75/318. It is by this resolution that the United Nations General Assembly proclaimed 7 October as World Cotton Day, giving the observance its formal standing in the United Nations calendar and tying it to the role of the crop in trade, in development and in reducing poverty in the poorest cotton-growing countries. Options A, B and D quote resolution numbers 70/218, 72/204 and 77/300, none of which created this day; such numbers look alike and are a favourite trap in objective papers, so the figure has to be memorised rather than guessed. A useful way to hold it is to pair the number with the event it made possible: the joint India and Mali gathering at the United Nations Headquarters in New York, held on 7 October 2026 on the theme of cotton for sustainability, livelihoods, value addition and partnership.

Q22.EconomyMedium

What is the approximate cumulative foreign direct investment from Singapore into India between April 2000 and March 2026?

  1. A.USD 94.68 billion
  2. B.USD 144.68 billion
  3. C.USD 194.68 billion
  4. D.USD 234.68 billion
Show answer
Correct answer: C. USD 194.68 billion

Explanation

The correct answer is USD 194.68 billion. That is the cumulative figure for foreign direct investment flowing from Singapore into India over the period from April 2000 to March 2026, and it is the number behind the description of Singapore as India’s single largest source of such investment. Option A, at 94.68 billion, and option B, at 144.68 billion, both fall well short of the recorded total and would place Singapore lower in the table of investing countries than it actually stands. Option D, at 234.68 billion, overstates the inflow. Along with the figure, note the window it covers, which begins in April 2000, because the same number is meaningless without the period; and remember the two Singaporean institutional investors named with it, GIC and Temasek, along with the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund and GIFT City as the Indian platforms held out for further Singaporean capital.

Q23.EconomyMedium

Which rake-loading target was achieved on three consecutive days in October 2026, according to the Ministry of Coal?

  1. A.420 rakes a day
  2. B.450 rakes a day
  3. C.470 rakes a day
  4. D.510 rakes a day
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 470 rakes a day

Explanation

The correct answer is 470 rakes a day. Rail loading of coal has averaged more than 465 rakes a day during October, and the ministry noted that the 470-rake target was met on three days running, which it treated as a sign that logistics had strengthened alongside production. Looking ahead, the ministry said loading held in the band of 465 to 475 rakes a day should support further stabilisation and then allow stocks to be rebuilt. Option A and option B name lower daily figures that the clarification never mentions, and both sit below even the monthly average already achieved. Option D names a figure well above the band the ministry wants sustained, so it cannot be the target that was reached. The number to memorise is the target of 470, distinct from the monthly average of more than 465.

Q24.InternationalMedium

How many of the sub-committees under the AITIGA Joint Committee held meetings on the sidelines of its 15th round?

  1. A.Two of six
  2. B.Three of eight
  3. C.Five of eight
  4. D.All eight
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Three of eight

Explanation

The correct answer is three of eight. The Joint Committee has eight sub-committees, and three of them held hybrid meetings on the margins of the 15th round in Jakarta. They were the Sub-Committee on Legal and Institutional Issues, known as SC-LII, the Sub-Committee on National Treatment on Market Access, known as SC-NTMA, and the Sub-Committee on Rules of Origin, known as SC-ROO. Option A misstates both the number that met and the total, since there are eight sub-committees and not six. Option C overstates how many met, and option D would mean every sub-committee sat, which did not happen. Candidates should also note the direction issued at the end of the round, namely that all sub-committees must speed up the chapters still pending under the AITIGA Review and attach firm, time-bound deliverables to them.

Q25.NationalMedium

Through which Gazette notification was the draft amendment on prescription drug advertising notified?

  1. A.G.S.R. 612(E) dated 12 August 2026
  2. B.G.S.R. 861(E) dated 28 September 2026
  3. C.S.O. 904(E) dated 1 October 2026
  4. D.G.S.R. 455(E) dated 30 June 2026
Show answer
Correct answer: B. G.S.R. 861(E) dated 28 September 2026

Explanation

The correct answer is G.S.R. 861(E) dated 28 September 2026. The ministry notified the draft amendment through that notification after consulting the Drugs Technical Advisory Board, and it has invited objections and suggestions from stakeholders and from the public within thirty days of the date on which copies of the Gazette carrying the draft rules are made available. Options A, C and D carry invented numbers and dates that appear nowhere in the announcement, and option C also uses the wrong series, since subordinate legislation of this kind is issued as a General Statutory Rule rather than a Statutory Order. For the examination, pair three details together: the notification number, the date of 28 September 2026 and the consultation with the Drugs Technical Advisory Board that preceded it.

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