Indian Polity Mixed Quiz: Set 24

The correct answer is Time immediately after Question Hour. In the Lok Sabha, Question Hour runs from 11 am to noon, and the period that begins at noon, when members raise urgent matters of public importance without the usual advance notice, is popularly called Zero Hour. It is an Indian innovation, in use since the early 1960s, and it is not mentioned in the Constitution or in the Rules of Procedure. Its name is usually traced to its starting time of 12 o'clock.

The other options place it wrongly. It is not a period in the last or first half of the day's proceedings as such, and in the Lok Sabha it does not come before Question Hour. One refinement is worth knowing for tougher papers: since 2014 the Rajya Sabha has taken up Zero Hour at 11 am and moved Question Hour to noon, so in the Rajya Sabha Zero Hour now comes first. The standard answer in exams, as here, describes the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is B, Article 161. Article 161 lets the Governor grant pardons, reprieves, respites and remissions of punishment, and suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence against a law on a matter to which the executive power of the state extends. His power is narrower than the President's under Article 72 in two ways: the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence and has no say in a sentence passed by a court martial, while the President can act in both cases. Like the President, the Governor exercises this power on the advice of the state Council of Ministers. Option A is wrong because Article 163 provides for the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor. Option C is wrong because Article 55 lays down the manner of election of the President. Option D is wrong because Article 145 lets the Supreme Court frame rules of procedure. Exam tip: Article 72 for the President's pardon and Article 161 for the Governor's; only the President can pardon a death sentence or a court-martial sentence.

The correct answer is 14 days. Under Article 109, a money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. After the Lok Sabha passes it, the bill goes to the Rajya Sabha, which must return it within 14 days from the date of receipt, with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha may accept or reject any of those recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which the Lok Sabha passed it.

So the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a money bill; it can only delay it by two weeks at most. Seven days, one month and twenty days are all wrong figures. Keep the related rules together: whether a bill is a money bill is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, whose certificate is final (Article 110(3)); a money bill needs the President's recommendation to be introduced; and the President cannot return it for reconsideration. A joint sitting is never needed for a money bill.

The correct answer is D, 86th amendment. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 made free and compulsory education a fundamental right. It inserted Article 21A, under which the State shall provide free and compulsory education to every child between the ages of six and fourteen years. The same amendment rewrote Article 45 in the Directive Principles, asking the State to care for children below six years, and added Article 51A(k), which makes it a fundamental duty of a parent or guardian to send a child to school. Parliament gave the right its working shape through the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, in force from 1 April 2010. Option A is wrong because the 88th Amendment dealt with service tax. Option B is wrong because the 89th Amendment split the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission into two separate bodies. Option C is wrong because the 87th Amendment shifted the basis of delimitation to the 2001 census. Exam tip: remember the trio 86th Amendment, Article 21A and the RTE Act, 2009.

The correct answer is Article 108. When the two Houses disagree on an ordinary bill, because one House rejects it, the Houses disagree on amendments, or more than six months pass without the other House passing it, the President can summon a joint sitting to resolve the deadlock. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides, and the bill is passed by a majority of the members of both Houses present and voting, which gives the larger Lok Sabha the advantage. Joint sittings have been held only three times: in 1961, 1978 and 2002.

The other options are real Articles with different content. Article 85 deals with the summoning, prorogation and dissolution of the Houses. Article 105 covers the powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses and their members. Article 331 allowed the President to nominate Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha, a provision that has now lapsed. Remember that a joint sitting cannot be used for a money bill or a constitutional amendment bill.

The correct answer is A, JS Khehar. Justice Jagdish Singh Khehar was the Chief Justice of India when the nine-judge bench delivered its verdict in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India on 24 August 2017, and he presided over it. The bench held unanimously that privacy is a fundamental right, protected mainly as part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and by the freedoms in Part III. It overruled the older rulings in M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962), which had said the Constitution gives no such right. The case grew out of a challenge to the Aadhaar scheme. Justice Khehar was also the first Sikh Chief Justice of India. Option B is wrong because Dipak Misra became Chief Justice a week later, and led the benches on Section 377 and adultery. Option C is wrong because H.J. Kania was India's first Chief Justice, in 1950. Option D is wrong because T.S. Thakur retired as Chief Justice in January 2017. Exam tip: Puttaswamy 2017, nine judges, Article 21, CJI Khehar.

The correct answer is Article 112. The Constitution never uses the word "budget"; it speaks instead of the "Annual Financial Statement", a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for the year, which the President causes to be laid before both Houses under Article 112. It separates expenditure "charged" on the Consolidated Fund, such as the salaries of the President and judges, which is not voted on, from other expenditure, which is.

The other options are the Articles that follow in the budget process. Article 113 lays down the procedure for estimates: the demands for grants, which only the Lok Sabha votes on. Article 114 deals with the Appropriation Bill, which authorises withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund. Article 115 covers supplementary, additional or excess grants. Learning the sequence helps: 112 statement, 113 demands, 114 appropriation, 115 extra grants and 116 votes on account.

The correct answer is D, Governor of the State. Article 234 of the Constitution says that appointments of persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a state are made by the Governor, following rules framed after consulting the State Public Service Commission and the High Court of that state. District judges are covered separately by Article 233, and they too are appointed by the Governor, but in consultation with the High Court. Once these officers are in service, Article 235 places their posting, promotion and leave under the control of the High Court, which is how the subordinate judiciary is kept independent. Option A is wrong because the High Court as a body is consulted, but the Chief Justice does not make the appointment. Option B is wrong because the Prime Minister has no role at all in state judicial services. Option C is wrong because the President appoints judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts under Articles 124 and 217. Exam tip: 233 district judges, 234 other judicial officers, 235 High Court control.

The correct answer is 7. The Public Accounts Committee has 22 members: 15 elected by the Lok Sabha and 7 elected by the Rajya Sabha, every year, by proportional representation through the single transferable vote. Ministers cannot be members. The committee examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General, which is why it is called Parliament's watchdog on public spending. Since 1967, by convention, its chairman has been a member of the opposition. It is one of the oldest parliamentary committees, first set up in 1921.

The wrong options are the other numbers of the same committee and its neighbours: 15 is the Lok Sabha's share, 22 is the total, and 5 has no role. Compare the other two financial committees: the Estimates Committee has 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha, and the Committee on Public Undertakings has 22 members, 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, the same split as the Public Accounts Committee.

The correct answer is C, Exclusive Original. Under Article 131, disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between States, can be heard only by the Supreme Court and by no other court. Such a case starts directly in the Supreme Court, which is why this is called original jurisdiction, and because no High Court can hear it, it is exclusive. The dispute must involve a legal right, not just a political quarrel. Option A is wrong because advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 is the President seeking the Court's opinion on a question of law or fact. Option B is wrong because appellate jurisdiction, under Articles 132 to 134, covers appeals against the judgments of High Courts. Option D is wrong because writ jurisdiction under Article 32 protects Fundamental Rights, and the High Courts share that power under Article 226. Exam tip: Article 131 original, Articles 132–134 appellate, Article 143 advisory, Article 32 writs.

The correct answer is 1950. The Estimates Committee of independent India was first constituted in 1950, on the recommendation of John Mathai, the Finance Minister. It examines the estimates included in the budget and suggests economies in public expenditure, improvements in organisation and alternative policies, which is why it is often called a "continuous economy committee". It has 30 members, all elected from the Lok Sabha each year, and ministers cannot be members.

The other years are close enough to tempt. 1947 is the year of independence, 1949 is when the Constitution was adopted, and 1948 has no link to the committee. For comparison, the Public Accounts Committee is older, having first been set up in 1921, and the Committee on Public Undertakings was set up in 1964, on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Remember the three financial committees with their numbers: Public Accounts 22, Estimates 30 (all Lok Sabha), Public Undertakings 22.

The correct answer is A, Right to personal liberty. Even during a national emergency, the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended. Article 21 protects life and personal liberty, and Article 20 protects a person from retrospective criminal laws, from being punished twice for the same offence and from being forced to be a witness against himself. This safeguard was added by the 44th Amendment, 1978, after the 1975-77 Emergency, when people held in detention could not challenge it in court. Under Article 359, the President may suspend the enforcement of the other Fundamental Rights while an emergency lasts. Option B is wrong because freedom of speech under Article 19 is suspended automatically under Article 358 when an emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression. Option C is wrong because the right to equality under Articles 14 to 18 can be suspended by a presidential order under Article 359. Option D is wrong because freedom of religion under Articles 25 to 28 can also be suspended under Article 359. Exam tip: in an emergency, Articles 20 and 21 always stay enforceable.

The correct answer is Anti-defection. The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 to curb the practice of legislators switching parties for office or money. A member of Parliament or a State legislature can be disqualified if he or she voluntarily gives up membership of the party, or votes or abstains against the party's direction without its permission. An independent member who joins a party, or a nominated member who joins one more than six months after taking the seat, is also disqualified. The presiding officer of the House decides such cases, subject to judicial review.

The other options are rights found elsewhere. The right to privacy was recognised as part of Article 21 in the Puttaswamy case (2017). Universal adult suffrage is guaranteed by Article 326. The right to education is Article 21A. The 91st Amendment (2003) later tightened the Tenth Schedule by deleting the exemption for a "split" of one-third of a party's legislators, keeping only mergers backed by two-thirds.

The correct answer is D, If such amendment seeks to make any change in Article 279-A. Article 279A creates the GST Council, and the 101st Amendment of 2016 added it to the proviso to Article 368(2), so changing it needs a special majority of Parliament plus ratification by at least half of the state legislatures. The same federal list covers the election of the President (Articles 54 and 55), the extent of the executive power of the Union and the states, the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the division of legislative powers and the Seventh Schedule lists, the representation of states in Parliament, and Article 368 itself. The logic is simple: what touches the states needs the consent of the states. Option A is wrong because Article 53, on the executive power of the Union, is not in that list. Option B is wrong because Article 239A, on legislatures for certain Union Territories, can be changed by Parliament alone. Option C is wrong because Article 243A, on the Gram Sabha, also needs no ratification by the states. Exam tip: the GST Council of Article 279A came with the 101st Amendment, and changing it needs state ratification.

The correct answer is One-third. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, known as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, reserves one-third of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha, the State Legislative Assemblies and the Legislative Assembly of Delhi, including one-third of the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. It was the first bill passed in the new Parliament building, in September 2023.

The reservation does not begin at once: it will take effect after the delimitation of constituencies carried out on the basis of the first census taken after the Act, and it will last for fifteen years, which Parliament can extend. The seats reserved for women will rotate after each delimitation. The other options are wrong fractions; one-third also happens to be the share of seats reserved for women in panchayats and municipalities since the 73rd and 74th Amendments of 1992, which is where the idea first entered the Constitution.

The correct answer is C, Five. The Citizenship Act of 1955 lays down five ways of acquiring Indian citizenship: by birth, by descent, by registration, by naturalisation and by incorporation of territory. Citizenship by birth applies to those born in India within the periods the Act sets out, descent covers children born abroad to Indian parents, registration is for persons of Indian origin and spouses of Indian citizens who meet the conditions, naturalisation is for foreigners who have lived here for the required years, and incorporation of territory applies when new territory becomes part of India, as with Goa and Sikkim. The same Act provides three ways of losing citizenship: renunciation, termination and deprivation. A and B are wrong because three and four leave out modes the Act lists. D is wrong because there is no sixth mode. Exam tip: five ways in, three ways out, all under the Citizenship Act 1955.

The correct answer is Chola Empire. The Sengol is a gold-plated silver sceptre topped by a figure of Nandi. In the Chola tradition, a new king received such a sceptre from a high priest as a symbol of the transfer of power and of the ruler's duty to govern justly. On 14 August 1947 priests from the Thiruvaduthurai Adheenam in Tamil Nadu presented a Sengol to Jawaharlal Nehru, and it was later kept in a museum in Allahabad. On 28 May 2023, when the new Parliament building was inaugurated, it was installed beside the Speaker's chair in the Lok Sabha.

The Pandyan option is the cleverest distractor, because the Pandyas were also a great Tamil dynasty, but the Sengol tradition invoked in 2023 was that of the Cholas. The Gupta and Shunga empires ruled in north India and have no link to it. Questions on the new Parliament building also ask its date of inauguration (28 May 2023) and the first bill passed in it, the Women's Reservation Bill of 2023.

The correct answer is B, Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh. Nagaland became a state on 1 December 1963, carved out of Assam. Haryana followed on 1 November 1966, when the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 divided Punjab on the basis of the Shah Commission's report. Sikkim, until then an Indian protectorate, became the 22nd state through the 36th Amendment Act, 1975, with statehood from 16 May 1975. Arunachal Pradesh, earlier the North-East Frontier Agency and then a Union Territory from 1972, became a state on 20 February 1987, on the same day as Mizoram. Option A is wrong because it places Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh before Nagaland and Haryana. Option C is wrong because Sikkim (1975) cannot come before Haryana (1966) or Nagaland (1963). Option D is wrong because Arunachal Pradesh (1987) became a state long after both Sikkim and Haryana. Exam tip: 1963 Nagaland, 1966 Haryana, 1975 Sikkim, 1987 Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram; Haryana Day falls on 1 November.

The correct answer is A, Article 85. Article 85 of the Constitution deals with the sessions of Parliament, its prorogation and the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It requires the President to summon each House so that not more than six months pass between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next, which is why Parliament must meet at least twice a year, though in practice it holds three sessions, budget, monsoon and winter. B is wrong because Article 89 deals with the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. C is wrong because Article 90 covers the vacation and resignation of the office of Deputy Chairman. D is wrong because Article 101 deals with the vacation of seats by members, including the rule about being absent for sixty days. Exam tip: Article 85 summons, prorogation and dissolution, with the six month gap rule between two sessions.

The correct answer is C, Taxes on lands and buildings. Taxes on lands and buildings is entry 49 of the State List, so it is not in the Concurrent List. The Seventh Schedule divides law-making power into three lists: the Union List for Parliament alone, the State List for the state legislatures, and the Concurrent List on which both may legislate, with the Union law prevailing in a clash under Article 254. Option B is wrong because forests is in the Concurrent List — it was moved there from the State List by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, along with education, weights and measures, administration of justice and the protection of wild animals and birds. Option A is wrong because industrial and labour disputes is entry 22 of the Concurrent List. Option D is wrong because economic and social planning is entry 20 of the same list. Exam tip: taxation entries sit almost entirely in the Union or State List; stamp duties is the one notable tax entry in the Concurrent List.