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Indian Economy Mixed Quiz: Set 49

  • 20 questions
  • 20 minutes
  • Difficulty: Medium
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About this quiz

Set 49 of the Indian Economy mixed quiz has 20 multiple-choice questions from 18 different topics of the subject: GDP and National Income, Special Economic Zones and Export Promotion, Sectors of the Indian Economy and more. 15 of them were asked in real previous-year papers. A topic quiz checks one chapter; this set revises the whole subject at once, the way an exam paper does, where the next question can come from any chapter. Every question carries an explanation of why the correct option is right and why the others are wrong. Keep to the timer, read the explanations at the end, and go back to the notes of any topic where you slipped.

Questions in this quiz

20 questions with answers and explanations

Q1.Indian EconomyAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2021, GKMedium

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. A.Real GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at common prices.
  2. B.Potential GDP is the real GDP that the economy would produce if its resources were fully employed.
  3. C.Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at constant prices.
  4. D.Real GDP per capita is the ratio of real GDP divided by population.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different years at constant prices.

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Nominal GDP values each year's output at that year's own (current) prices, not at constant prices, so this statement is not correct.

GDP is the money value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a year. Nominal GDP uses current prices, so it can rise simply because prices have gone up. Real GDP removes this effect by valuing the output of every year at the prices of one base year, which shows the true change in production. The ratio of nominal to real GDP, multiplied by 100, gives the GDP deflator, a broad measure of inflation.

A is correct: valuing different years at common, or base-year, prices is exactly how real GDP is worked out.

B is correct: potential GDP is the output the economy could produce with full employment of labour and capital.

D is correct: real GDP divided by population gives real GDP per capita, a common measure of living standards.

Exam tip: nominal GDP = current prices; real GDP = constant (base-year) prices; deflator = nominal ÷ real × 100.

Q2.Indian EconomyMedium

For the purposes of trade operations, duties and tariffs, a special economic zone is treated as

  1. A.part of the domestic tariff area
  2. B.foreign territory
  3. C.a union territory
  4. D.a bonded warehouse of the state government
Show answer
Correct answer: B. foreign territory

Explanation

The correct answer is B, foreign territory. The law deems a special economic zone to be outside the customs territory of India for trade operations, duties and tariffs, which is why a supply from the rest of the country into the zone is an export and a sale from the zone into the rest of the country is an import attracting customs duty. A is wrong because the domestic tariff area is defined as the part of India outside the zones, so a zone is precisely what the domestic tariff area is not. C is wrong because a union territory is a unit of the political map administered by the Union, and a zone has no such constitutional status. D is wrong because a bonded warehouse only stores goods on which duty is deferred, and it is licensed under the customs law rather than deemed foreign territory.

Q3.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2022, GS Paper IMedium

Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy ?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops

2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics

3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company

4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The correct answer is A, 1 and 2 only. The real sector produces actual goods and services, so harvesting crops and making cloth belong to it, while lending and issuing bonds belong to the financial sector.

Economists divide an economy into the real sector and the financial sector. The real sector covers the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services: agriculture, mining, manufacturing, construction and trade. Its output is measured in physical terms and adds directly to GDP. The financial sector deals with money and claims on money, such as bank loans, shares, bonds and insurance, and its job is to move savings to those who invest in the real sector. Rupee-denominated bonds sold abroad, popularly called "masala bonds", are a financial instrument used to raise funds.

B is wrong: it includes activities 3 and 4, which are financial, and leaves out farming.

C is wrong: it includes the two financial activities and leaves out textile manufacturing.

D is wrong: bank lending and bond issues are not real-sector activities.

Exam tip: real sector = goods and services produced (farm, factory, trade); financial sector = money, credit, bonds and shares.

Q4.Indian EconomyHard

The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) was established under an Act of Parliament passed in which year?

  1. A.2018
  2. B.2019
  3. C.2021
  4. D.2023
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 2021

Explanation

The correct answer is C, 2021. Infrastructure needs loans of twenty years or more, while a commercial bank takes deposits for a few years, and the mismatch between the two had crippled infrastructure lending after earlier development finance institutions were converted into banks. Parliament therefore passed the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Act in 2021, setting up NaBFID as a development financial institution with paid-up capital of twenty thousand crore rupees and a grant of five thousand crore rupees from the Central Government, with the mandate to lend long term and to deepen the bond and derivatives market for infrastructure. A and B are the years of other reforms and are offered only as near misses, and D is later than the Act.

Q5.Indian EconomyAsked in: NDA · NDA-II 2017, GATHard

Which one of the following was set as a target of average growth of GDP of India over the plan period 2012 - 2017 by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan?

  1. A.7 percent
  2. B.8 percent
  3. C.9 percent
  4. D.10 percent
Show answer
Correct answer: C. 9 percent

Explanation

The correct answer is C, 9 percent. The Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan, released in 2011, aimed at average GDP growth of 9% a year for 2012–17.

The Twelfth Plan carried the theme "Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth". The Planning Commission's Approach Paper, approved by the National Development Council in October 2011, set the 9% target, up from the 8.2% achieved in the Eleventh Plan. Because the economy slowed sharply in 2012, the final Plan document approved in December 2012 cut the target to 8%. The Twelfth Plan was the last Five Year Plan, as the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015.

A is wrong: 7% was below even the growth recorded in the Eleventh Plan and was never the target.

B is wrong: 8% was the revised target of the final Plan document, not of the Approach Paper.

D is wrong: 10% was considered as a high-growth scenario but not adopted as the target.

Exam tip: Twelfth Plan: Approach Paper 9%, final document 8%; last plan before NITI Aayog.

Q6.Indian EconomyAsked in: RRB NTPC · 13 Mar 2021, Shift 2Medium

Which of the following schemes is the Micro Finance Scheme for women with rebate in interest?

  1. A.National Maternity Benefit Scheme
  2. B.Social Security Pilot Scheme
  3. C.Mahila samriddhi Yojna
  4. D.Rajrajeshwari Mahila kalyan Yojna
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Mahila samriddhi Yojna

Explanation

The correct answer is C, Mahila Samriddhi Yojna. It is the micro-finance scheme under which women borrow small sums at a concessional rate of interest, so the rebate in interest is built into the scheme itself. It is run by the National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, and the money reaches women through State Channelising Agencies and self-help groups, mostly for petty trade and self-employment. A parallel scheme is run for Scheduled Caste women by the National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation. Option A is wrong because the National Maternity Benefit Scheme paid a one-time cash grant to poor pregnant women and was later merged into Janani Suraksha Yojana. Option B is wrong because it is a pilot for social security cover, not a credit scheme for women. Option D is wrong because Raj Rajeshwari Mahila Kalyan Yojana is a personal accident insurance cover for women, not a loan. Exam tip: Mahila Samriddhi Yojana means micro-credit for women at a concessional interest rate, run by NBCFDC.

Q7.Indian EconomyAsked in: CDS · CDS-I 2021, GKEasy

The asset or assets that a borrower pledges in order to guarantee repayment of a loan is called as

  1. A.Cheque
  2. B.Collateral
  3. C.Guarantee card
  4. D.Bond
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Collateral

Explanation

The correct answer is B, Collateral. Collateral is an asset that the borrower pledges to the lender as security until the loan is repaid.

When a bank lends money it wants protection against default. So the borrower offers an asset he or she owns, such as land, a house, a vehicle, gold or deposits, and the lender keeps a claim over it. If the loan is not repaid, the lender has the right to sell the collateral to recover the money. The NCERT economics textbook lists collateral as one of the 'terms of credit', along with the interest rate, documentation and the mode of repayment. People without collateral, such as poor rural households, therefore find it hard to get bank loans.

A is wrong: a cheque is a written order to a bank to pay money from an account, not a security for a loan.

C is wrong: a guarantee card is a product warranty given by a seller, unrelated to loans.

D is wrong: a bond is a debt instrument through which a government or company borrows from investors.

Exam tip: collateral is one of the four terms of credit: interest rate, collateral, documentation and mode of repayment.

Q8.Indian EconomyAsked in: RRB Group D · 19 Sept 2022, Shift 3Medium

In Economics, which of the following curves is inverse U-shaped?

  1. A.Marginal product curve
  2. B.Short run marginal cost curve
  3. C.Average variable cost curve
  4. D.Long run average cost curve
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Marginal product curve

Explanation

The correct answer is A, Marginal product curve. The marginal product of a variable factor first rises, reaches a peak and then falls, so the curve traced out is an inverted U. This is the law of variable proportions at work. In the first stage the extra units of labour get plenty of the fixed factor to work with and each one adds more to output than the last; at the peak the fixed factor is being used best; after that each extra worker has too little of the fixed factor, so the addition to output keeps shrinking and can even turn negative. B is wrong because the short run marginal cost curve is U-shaped, falling and then rising, as cost moves opposite to product. C is wrong because the average variable cost curve is U-shaped for the same reason. D is wrong because the long run average cost curve is a flatter U-shaped envelope of the short run curves. Exam tip: product curves are inverted U, cost curves are U.

Q9.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2017, GS Paper IEasy

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

Explanation

The correct answer is A, 1 only. The MPC fixes the policy repo rate, the RBI's benchmark rate, but it has six members and is chaired by the RBI Governor.

The Monetary Policy Committee was set up under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934, added by the Finance Act, 2016. It decides the policy repo rate needed to keep inflation within the target the government sets, currently 4% CPI inflation with a band of 2% to 6%. It has six members: the RBI Governor as chairperson, a Deputy Governor, one other RBI officer nominated by the central board, and three external members appointed by the Central Government for four years. Each member has one vote, and the Governor has a casting vote in case of a tie.

B is wrong: the MPC has six members, not twelve, and external members serve four-year terms; it is not reconstituted every year.

C is wrong: the RBI Governor, not the Finance Minister, chairs the MPC.

D is wrong: both statements 2 and 3 are false.

Exam tip: MPC = 6 members, 3 from RBI and 3 external, Governor in the chair with a casting vote; it sets the repo rate.

Q10.Indian EconomyMedium

Which of the eight core industries carries the highest weight in the core sector index?

  1. A.Electricity
  2. B.Steel
  3. C.Refinery products
  4. D.Coal
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Refinery products

Explanation

The correct answer is C, Refinery products, with a weight of 28.04 per cent, more than a quarter of the whole index. Refining turns crude oil into petrol, diesel, kerosene, naphtha and feedstock for chemicals, and the value of that output is so large that a shutdown at a big refinery shows up in the national figure. Option A, electricity, comes next at 19.85 per cent, and option B, steel, follows at 17.92 per cent, so all three options are near the top and only their order distinguishes them. Option D, coal, carries 10.33 per cent and stands fourth. The full descending order worth memorising is refinery products, electricity, steel, coal, crude oil at 8.98, natural gas at 6.88, cement at 5.37 and fertilisers at 2.63 per cent, and the eight weights add up to a hundred.

Q11.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IEasy

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

  1. A.Repayment of public debt
  2. B.Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
  3. C.Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
  4. D.Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Explanation

The correct answer is D, creation of new money to finance a budget deficit. Printing new money adds fresh purchasing power to the economy without any matching rise in goods, so it pushes prices up the most.

When the government covers its deficit by borrowing from the central bank, which creates new money, the money supply grows directly. This method is called deficit financing or monetisation of the deficit. In India, the practice of automatic monetisation through ad hoc treasury bills was ended by an agreement between the government and the RBI in 1997, and the FRBM Act later barred the RBI from buying government securities in the primary market except in special cases.

A is wrong: repaying public debt returns money already in the system and tends to be neutral or even disinflationary.

B is wrong: borrowing from the public only moves existing savings to the government, so total money supply does not rise.

C is wrong: borrowing from commercial banks can expand credit somewhat, but far less than printing new money.

Exam tip: inflationary effect of deficit financing, from most to least: new money creation, bank borrowing, borrowing from the public.

Q12.Indian EconomyMedium

Which trade arrangement is characterised by a common external tariff applied by all its members on imports from non-members?

  1. A.Preferential trade agreement
  2. B.Free trade area
  3. C.Customs union
  4. D.Economic union
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Customs union

Explanation

The correct answer is C, Customs union. A customs union removes duties on trade among its members and, in addition, requires every member to levy the same tariff on goods coming from outside the union, which is the common external tariff. Option A is wrong because a preferential trade agreement only lowers duties on a listed set of products and leaves external tariffs entirely to each country. Option B is wrong because a free trade area removes internal duties but each member keeps its own external tariff; this is the single commonest confusion in the topic. Option D is wrong because an economic union is a higher stage that already includes a common external tariff but adds the free movement of labour and capital and common economic policies, so the defining feature asked about belongs to the customs union stage.

Q13.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2025, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A.I and II only
  2. B.II and III only
  3. C.I and III only
  4. D.I, II and III
Show answer
Correct answer: A. I and II only

Explanation

The correct answer is A, I and II only. Capital receipts either add to liabilities or reduce assets, and borrowings and disinvestment are typical examples; interest received is a revenue receipt.

In the Union Budget, a receipt is a capital receipt if it creates a liability (as with market borrowings, small savings and other debt, which must be repaid) or reduces an asset (as with disinvestment, where the government sells part of its stake in public sector enterprises, or recovery of loans it gave earlier). Revenue receipts do neither: tax revenue and non-tax revenue such as interest received, dividends, profits and fees simply come in. So interest earned on loans given by the government is non-tax revenue and creates no liability.

B is wrong: it includes statement III, which is false.

C is wrong: it includes the false statement III and leaves out the true statement II.

D is wrong: statement III is false, so all three cannot be correct.

Exam tip: capital receipt = liability up or asset down (borrowing, disinvestment, loan recovery); interest and dividends = revenue receipts.

Q14.Indian EconomyAsked in: CDS · CDS (I) 2022, 10 Apr 2022Easy

What is 'Unicorn Company' often mentioned in Indian news?

  1. A.Any privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion
  2. B.Any public sector company to be merged with another public sector company
  3. C.Privatization of any loss-making State-owned company
  4. D.Any foreign multinational company doing business in India in collaboration with an Indian company
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Any privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion

Explanation

The correct answer is A, Any privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion. A unicorn is a startup that is not listed on the stock market and is valued at more than one billion US dollars. The term was coined in 2013 by the American venture capitalist Aileen Lee, who picked the mythical animal because such startups were then very rare. Related words follow the same pattern: a decacorn is valued at over 10 billion dollars and a hectocorn at over 100 billion dollars. Once a unicorn lists its shares through an IPO, it becomes a listed company and, strictly speaking, is no longer called a unicorn. B is wrong, because merging one public sector company with another, as done with several public sector banks, is consolidation. C is wrong, because selling a loss-making state-owned company is privatisation or disinvestment. D is wrong, because a foreign firm working with an Indian partner forms a joint venture. Exam tip: unicorn, private startup, over 1 billion dollars; decacorn, over 10 billion.

Q15.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IEasy

Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

  1. A.Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
  2. B.Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.
  3. C.Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
  4. D.Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion
Show answer
Correct answer: D. Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Explanation

The correct answer is D, Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion. Black money is, by definition, income hidden from the tax authorities, so its most direct and serious effect is the tax the government never receives.

Black money is income on which tax due has not been paid, whether it is earned legally and concealed or earned through illegal activity. Every rupee kept outside the books is a rupee of tax lost, which reduces what the government can spend on infrastructure, health and welfare, widens the fiscal deficit and pushes up the tax burden on honest taxpayers. This is why measures such as the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015, and the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016, focus on taxing and penalising hidden income.

A is wrong: investment in real estate is one way black money is used, but it is a consequence, not the main worry.

B is wrong: buying gold and jewellery is another use of black money, again secondary to the revenue loss.

C is wrong: political funding is a concern, but regionalism is not a recognised effect of black money.

Exam tip: black money = untaxed income; the core harm is revenue loss to the exchequer.

Q16.Indian EconomyMedium

Disguised unemployment is most commonly found in which sector in India?

  1. A.Agriculture
  2. B.Information technology
  3. C.Banking
  4. D.Mining
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Agriculture

Explanation

The correct answer is A, agriculture. On a small family holding every member of the household may work on the land even though the work needs far fewer hands; if some of them were withdrawn, total output would not fall. Their labour is therefore adding nothing, which is what disguised or hidden unemployment means.

Option B, information technology, and option C, banking, are organised service activities where posts are sanctioned and surplus workers are not carried in this way. Option D, mining, is organised and capital intensive for the most part. The other forms of unemployment are worth learning alongside: seasonal unemployment, where work exists only in certain months, which also afflicts agriculture, and open unemployment, where a person willing to work at the going wage finds none at all. Papers ask all three definitions in rotation.

Q17.Indian EconomyAsked in: CDS · CDS-II 2019, GKHard

The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application designed, developed, owned and implemented by the

  1. A.Department of Financial Services
  2. B.Institute of Government Accounts and Finance
  3. C.Controller General of Accounts
  4. D.National Institute of Financial Management
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Controller General of Accounts

Explanation

The correct answer is C, Controller General of Accounts. PFMS is run by the office of the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

PFMS began in 2009 as the Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System, built to track funds released under central schemes. It grew into a single platform for payment, accounting and reporting of government money. It links the accounts of the Centre, states and implementing agencies with banks, so that money can be followed down to the last beneficiary, and it is the backbone of Direct Benefit Transfer payments. The CGA is the principal accounting adviser to the Union government.

A is wrong: the Department of Financial Services handles banks, insurance and pension policy, not government accounting software.

B is wrong: the Institute of Government Accounts and Finance (INGAF) is the CGA's training institute, not the owner of PFMS.

D is wrong: the National Institute of Financial Management at Faridabad trains officers in finance; it does not run PFMS.

Exam tip: PFMS = Controller General of Accounts, Department of Expenditure; started 2009 as CPSMS.

Q18.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC CAPF · CAPF 2025, Paper IMedium

The comparative advantage theory (CAT) is a trade theory that describes the basis of two nations engaging in trade. Which one among the following statements regarding the theory is not correct?

  1. A.David Ricardo was the author of the CAT.
  2. B.The CAT is explained in the book titled On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation that was first published in 1817.
  3. C.According to the CAT, the nation which does not have absolute advantage in any goods cannot benefit from trade.
  4. D.The two nations that engage in trade can gain from specializing in the commodity in which they have a comparative advantage.
Show answer
Correct answer: C. According to the CAT, the nation which does not have absolute advantage in any goods cannot benefit from trade.

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The whole point of comparative advantage is that a country gains from trade even when it has no absolute advantage in any good.

David Ricardo showed that what matters is opportunity cost. In his example, Portugal could make both wine and cloth more cheaply than England, yet both countries gained when Portugal specialised in wine and England in cloth, because each gave up less to produce that good. This improved on Adam Smith's idea of absolute advantage, which could not explain trade between a highly efficient country and a less efficient one.

A is a correct statement: the theory is credited to the British economist David Ricardo.

B is a correct statement: he set it out in On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation, first published in 1817.

D is a correct statement: specialising in the good with the lower opportunity cost and trading lets both nations consume more.

Exam tip: Adam Smith = absolute advantage (1776); David Ricardo = comparative advantage (1817).

Q19.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IMedium

Consider the following statements :

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets

2. increases the foreign value of domestic currency

3. improves the trade balance

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: A. 1 only

Explanation

The correct answer is A, 1 only. Devaluation makes domestic goods cheaper abroad, so export competitiveness improves, but it lowers the external value of the currency and does not necessarily improve the trade balance.

Devaluation is a deliberate cut in the official exchange value of a currency under a fixed or managed exchange rate; India devalued the rupee in 1966 and in 1991. After it, each unit of foreign currency buys more domestic currency, so the foreign-currency price of exports falls and the domestic price of imports rises. Whether the trade balance improves depends on how strongly export and import volumes respond (the Marshall-Lerner condition), and in the short run it often worsens first, a pattern known as the J-curve.

B is wrong: statement 2 is the opposite of what happens, as devaluation reduces the foreign value of the domestic currency.

C is wrong: improvement in the trade balance is not guaranteed.

D is wrong: both statements 2 and 3 are false.

Exam tip: devaluation = cheaper exports, dearer imports; trade balance improves only if demand is elastic (Marshall-Lerner), J-curve in the short run.

Q20.Indian EconomyAsked in: UPSC Civil Services · CSE Prelims 2021, GS Paper IHard

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in 'Treasury Bills' and 'Government of India Debt Bonds' in primary market. 2. The 'Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching' is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. 3. The 'Central Depository Services Ltd.' is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.1 only
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: B. 1 and 2

Explanation

The correct answer is B, 1 and 2. Retail investors can bid for government securities in primary auctions, and NDS-OM is the RBI's trading platform for them, but CDSL was not promoted by the RBI.

Statement 1 is correct: under the non-competitive bidding scheme, retail investors can buy treasury bills and dated Government of India securities in primary auctions through stock exchanges and brokers, holding them in a demat account. The RBI Retail Direct scheme of 2021 also lets them open a gilt account with the RBI directly.

Statement 2 is correct: the Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM) is an anonymous, screen-based electronic platform owned by the RBI for secondary-market trading in government securities, run with the Clearing Corporation of India.

Statement 3 is wrong: Central Depository Services (India) Ltd. was promoted by BSE together with banks such as State Bank of India, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda and HDFC Bank. The RBI is not a promoter.

So A leaves out statement 2, while C and D include the false statement 3.

Exam tip: India's two depositories are NSDL (promoted by NSE, IDBI and UTI) and CDSL (promoted by BSE with banks).

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