SSC CGL Previous Year GK Questions

The correct answer is D, Bihar. The Lomas Rishi cave is one of the Barabar caves in the Barabar Hills of Jehanabad district, about 25 km north of Gaya. These are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, carved from hard granite in the Mauryan period, in the third century BCE, and their inner walls carry the famous glass-like Mauryan polish. Ashoka and his grandson Dasharatha gave the caves to the Ajivika monks, as inscriptions at the site record. The Lomas Rishi cave is best known for its doorway, carved to look like the arched wooden entrance of a hut, the earliest "chaitya arch" that later appears at Bhaja, Karle and Ajanta. A, Maharashtra, has the later Buddhist caves of Ajanta, Ellora, Karle and Bhaja. B, Karnataka, has the Badami cave temples of the Chalukyas. C, Madhya Pradesh, has Bhimbetka rock shelters and Udayagiri caves, but not Lomas Rishi. Exam tip: Barabar and Lomas Rishi, Mauryan, Ajivikas, Bihar.

The correct answer is B, 1934. Gandhi formally withdrew the Civil Disobedience Movement in April 1934, after it had lost momentum under heavy repression. The movement had begun on 12 March 1930 with the Dandi March and the breaking of the salt law on 6 April 1930. It was suspended after the Gandhi–Irwin Pact of 5 March 1931, when Gandhi agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London. The conference failed, Gandhi was arrested on his return, and the movement was restarted in January 1932, but by 1934 most leaders were in jail and it was called off. So the movement has three dates to keep apart: 1930 launch, 1931 pause, 1934 end. A, 1917, is the year of the Champaran Satyagraha, Gandhi's first movement in India. C, 1923, is when the Swaraj Party was formed by C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru. D, 1943, is the year Subhas Chandra Bose set up the Azad Hind Government in Singapore. Exam tip: Civil Disobedience 1930 to 1934, with the 1931 pact in between.

The correct answer is D, Kashmir. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the most powerful king of the Karkota dynasty of Kashmir in the eighth century, ruling roughly from 724 to 760 CE. He is remembered for building the Martand Sun Temple near Anantnag, whose ruins still stand, and for founding the town of Parihaspora as his capital. Almost everything we know about him comes from Kalhana's Rajatarangini, the twelfth-century Sanskrit chronicle of the kings of Kashmir, which credits him with campaigns against Yashovarman of Kannauj and with wide conquests. The words Karkota, Martand and Rajatarangini all point to Kashmir, so any one of them settles the question. A, Gujarat, was ruled at that time by the Maitrakas of Valabhi and later the Chaulukyas. B, Sikkim, had no such king; its Namgyal kingdom began only in 1642. C, Kerala, was under the Cheras and never had a Karkota ruler. Exam tip: Lalitaditya, Karkota, Martand temple, Rajatarangini all mean Kashmir.

The correct answer is A, Alauddin Khalji – Jalaluddin Khalji. Jalaluddin Khalji founded the Khalji dynasty in 1290, and in 1296 his nephew and son-in-law Alauddin had him killed at Kara and took the throne. Alauddin then ruled till 1316, fixed market prices, kept a large standing army and sent Malik Kafur into the Deccan. In the pair, the first name is the ruler and the second is the person who ruled just before him, so you only need to check who came first. B is wrong because Balban came after Iltutmish: Iltutmish ruled from 1211 to 1236 and Balban from 1266 to 1287. C is wrong because Firuz Shah Tughluq succeeded Muhammad Tughluq in 1351, so he is the successor, not the predecessor. D is wrong for the same reason in reverse: Ghiyasuddin Tughluq founded the dynasty in 1320 and Muhammad Tughluq followed him in 1324. Exam tip: Jalaluddin to Alauddin 1296, Ghiyasuddin to Muhammad 1324, Muhammad to Firuz 1351.

The correct answer is D, Rajput dynasties, Khalji dynasty, Tughluq dynasty. This is the only option in which every dynasty comes after the one before it. The full order of the rulers of Delhi, as the NCERT table gives it, is: Rajput dynasties, the Tomaras and the Chauhans, in the early twelfth century; Early Turkish Rulers from 1206 to 1290, starting with Qutbuddin Aibak; the Khalji dynasty from 1290 to 1320; the Tughluq dynasty from 1320 to 1414; the Sayyid dynasty from 1414 to 1451; and the Lodi dynasty from 1451 to 1526, ending with Ibrahim Lodi at Panipat. A is wrong because the Sayyids ruled before the Lodis, not after. B is wrong because the Khaljis came before the Tughluqs. C is wrong because the Rajput rulers of Delhi came before the Turkish rulers, not after. Exam tip: remember the chain Rajput, Turk (Slave), Khalji, Tughluq, Sayyid, Lodi with the years 1206, 1290, 1320, 1414, 1451, 1526.

The correct answer is B, Article 279A. It empowers the President to constitute the Goods and Services Tax Council, a joint forum of the Centre and the States. The Article was inserted by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, the same amendment that brought GST, and the Council was set up in September 2016. The Union Finance Minister is its Chairperson, the Union Minister of State for Finance and the finance or taxation ministers of all States are its members, and decisions need a three-fourths weighted majority in which the Centre holds one-third of the votes and the States together two-thirds. A, Article 246A, gives Parliament and the State legislatures the power to make laws on GST. C, Article 269A, deals with the levy and collection of GST on inter-State trade, that is, IGST. D, Article 323A, provides for administrative tribunals and has nothing to do with tax. Exam tip: 246A power to tax, 269A inter-State GST, 279A GST Council; all three came with the 101st Amendment.

The correct answer is B, Article 61. It lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President, the only ground being "violation of the Constitution". The charge may be started in either House by a resolution signed by at least one-fourth of its members, with fourteen days' notice, and must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House. The other House then investigates, the President may appear and be represented, and if it too passes the resolution by a two-thirds majority the President stands removed. No Indian President has ever been impeached. A, Article 51, is a Directive Principle on promoting international peace and security. C, Article 63, simply says there shall be a Vice-President of India. D, Article 54, is about the election of the President by the electoral college. Exam tip: 54 election, 56 term, 61 impeachment, 63 Vice-President.

The correct answer is A, Part V. Part V is titled "The Union" and its first chapter, "The Executive", covers the President, the Vice-President, the Council of Ministers and the Attorney-General. Part V runs from Article 52 to Article 151 and also contains Parliament, the legislative powers of the President, the Union Judiciary (Supreme Court) and the Comptroller and Auditor-General. Article 52 is the opening line: "There shall be a President of India." Whatever belongs to the Centre as an institution lives in Part V. B, Part III, is Fundamental Rights, Articles 12 to 35. C, Part IV, is the Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36 to 51. D, Part VI, is "The States", Articles 152 to 237, which has the Governor, the state legislature and the High Courts, the state mirror of Part V. Exam tip: Part V is the Union, Part VI is the States; Part III rights, Part IV directives.

The correct answer is D, Article 247. It gives Parliament the power to provide by law for additional courts so that laws made by Parliament, or older laws on Union List subjects, are administered better. The Article sits in Part XI, Chapter I, which deals with the division of law-making power between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 255). The word to catch in the question is "additional courts": only Article 247 talks about courts in this chapter, the neighbouring Articles talk about subjects and lists. A, Article 246, distributes subjects among the Union List, State List and Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule. B, Article 248, gives the residuary power, that is, power over any matter not in the State or Concurrent List, to Parliament. C, Article 253, lets Parliament make laws for the whole country to implement treaties and international agreements. Exam tip: 246 three lists, 247 additional courts, 248 residuary power, 253 international agreements.

The correct answer is D, Article 141. It says that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India. This Article is the constitutional base of the doctrine of precedent: a ruling of the Supreme Court becomes the law for every High Court and lower court until the Supreme Court itself changes it. Note the exact words, because they are lifted straight into exam questions: "law declared", "binding on all courts", "within the territory of India". A, Article 143, is the advisory jurisdiction under which the President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court. B, Article 142, lets the Court pass any order needed to do complete justice in a case. C, Article 144, directs all civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court. Exam tip: remember the run 141 binding law, 142 complete justice, 143 advice to the President, 144 authorities act in aid.

The correct answer is Article 32. Speaking in the Constituent Assembly, Dr B.R. Ambedkar said that if he were asked to name the most important Article, one without which the Constitution would be a nullity, he could not refer to any other; it was "the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it". His reasoning was simple: a right without a remedy is only words on paper. Article 32 gives every person the right to go directly to the Supreme Court to enforce a Fundamental Right, and this right to a remedy is itself a Fundamental Right. The Supreme Court has held Article 32 to be part of the basic structure, so it cannot be taken away even by an amendment.

The wrong options are Article 4, which says that laws forming or changing States under Articles 2 and 3 are not amendments of the Constitution; Article 28, which bars religious instruction in fully State-funded institutions; and Article 30, on minority educational institutions. Keep this description apart from others: the Preamble is the "identity card" of the Constitution, according to N.A. Palkhivala.

The correct answer is Article 25 to Article 28. The Right to Freedom of Religion has four Articles: Article 25 gives freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion; Article 26 lets every religious denomination manage its own religious affairs; Article 27 says no one can be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion of a particular religion; and Article 28 bars religious instruction in educational institutions wholly maintained out of State funds.

Each wrong option is another group of Fundamental Rights: Articles 14 to 18 are the Right to Equality, Articles 19 to 22 the Right to Freedom, and Articles 29 and 30 the Cultural and Educational Rights. So this question really tests whether you know where each group begins and ends. If you remember the six starting points, 14, 19, 23, 25, 29 and 32, you can answer every question of this kind. Note too that these Articles were in the Constitution from 1950, long before the word "secular" was added to the Preamble in 1976.

The correct answer is 14. Article 24 says that no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment. Together with Article 23, which bans human trafficking and forced labour, it forms the Right against Exploitation.

The number 14 links several parts of the Constitution, so it is worth tying them together. Article 21A guarantees free and compulsory education from six to fourteen, Article 45 now covers early childhood care below six, and Article 51A(k) makes it a duty of parents to educate children between six and fourteen. Parliament has gone further than Article 24 through the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986: after its 2016 amendment it bars children below 14 from almost all work, with narrow exceptions such as helping a family business after school hours, and bars adolescents aged 14 to 18 from hazardous work. Of the wrong options, 18 tempts the most because it is the age of majority and, since the 61st Amendment of 1988, the voting age.

The correct answer is 6. Article 19(1) gives every citizen six freedoms: speech and expression; to assemble peaceably and without arms; to form associations, unions or co-operative societies; to move freely throughout India; to reside and settle in any part of India; and to practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business. There were seven when the Constitution began. The seventh, clause (f), the freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property, was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

The 97th Amendment Act, 2011 added the words "co-operative societies" to clause (c), but that widened an existing freedom rather than creating a new one, so the count is still six. These freedoms belong only to citizens, and none of them is absolute: clauses (2) to (6) of Article 19 let the State impose reasonable restrictions. The wrong options are borrowed from nearby numbers in this topic, Article 13, Article 30 and the 44th Amendment, which is exactly why they look familiar and tempt you.

The correct answer is Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. These are the exact words the Preamble uses for liberty, and they appear in it just as written here.

Each of the other options changes one word of the real text, which is exactly how this question catches people. The Preamble speaks of fraternity "assuring the dignity of the individual" and the unity and integrity of the Nation, not "human dignity". It promises equality "of status and of opportunity", not of status and employment. And justice in the Preamble is "social, economic and political"; the word "administrative" does not appear. When an option looks almost right, compare it word for word with the text: justice (social, economic, political), liberty (thought, expression, belief, faith, worship), equality (status, opportunity) and fraternity (dignity of the individual, unity and integrity of the Nation).

The correct answer is Ireland. The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution were modelled on the Irish Constitution. India also took two other features from Ireland: the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha and the method of electing the President.

The other countries gave different features. The USSR is the source of the Fundamental Duties and of the ideal of social, economic and political justice in the Preamble. The United States gave the Fundamental Rights, judicial review, the independence of the judiciary and the impeachment of the President. China is not counted among the sources of the Indian Constitution at all. The pair most often confused is Rights and Principles: Fundamental Rights come from the USA, while the Directive Principles come from Ireland. A simple memory hook is "Rights from America, Directions from Ireland".

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru. Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly on 13 December 1946, and the Assembly adopted it on 22 January 1947. The resolution set out what the Constitution was meant to achieve: an independent, sovereign republic in which all people would have justice, equality and freedom, with safeguards for minorities and backward classes. Those ideas were later shaped into the Preamble.

Dr Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Assembly and presided over its debates; he did not move this resolution. J.B. Kripalani chaired the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee. Dr B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, which was set up only on 29 August 1947, months after the resolution had been adopted. A tidy way to remember the order: Nehru stated the objectives first, and Ambedkar's committee turned them into a draft later.