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Current Affairs Quiz

State Exams Current Affairs Quiz: 15 September 2026

  • 24 questions
  • 24 minutes
  • Difficulty: Medium
Useful for:State Exams
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About this quiz

This State Exams current affairs quiz puts 24 multiple-choice questions to you from 8 stories published on 15 September 2026 that matter for the State Exams general awareness section. The questions are the same verified MCQs that accompany GK24's articles, chosen here for their relevance to State Exams, and every one carries a full explanation of the correct option and of why the other options are wrong. Attempt the quiz within the timer, review the explanations at the end, and read the stories behind the questions on their articles or the day's edition page. Bookmark it for a quick revision before the exam.

Questions in this quiz

24 questions with answers and explanations

Q1.DefenceEasy

How many personnel has each side fielded for Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026?

  1. A.400 personnel
  2. B.500 personnel
  3. C.600 personnel
  4. D.800 personnel
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 600 personnel

Explanation

The correct answer is 600 personnel. The release on the opening ceremony states plainly that the contingents addressed by the two commanders were made up of that number of troops from each army, so the Indian side and the American side are equally represented. This equal strength is a point paper setters like, because it is a single clean figure that can be checked in one line of the release. Option A is wrong; that number is not attached to this drill anywhere in the release. Option B is wrong for the same reason and is a common round-figure distractor. Option D is wrong as well, since nothing in the release supports a strength of that size for either contingent. An aspirant should remember the figure together with the edition number, the 22nd, and the two venues, Auli in Uttarakhand and the Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan.

Q2.DefenceMedium

What was the theme of the VIMARSH DRDO-Industry Synergy Meet held in September 2026?

  1. A.Varta se Vikas
  2. B.Vikas se Vishwas
  3. C.Shodh se Samriddhi
  4. D.Nav Bharat Nav Nirman
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Varta se Vikas

Explanation

The correct answer is Varta se Vikas, the theme named by the Defence Secretary and DRDO Chairman while describing how the meet was designed. The phrase captures the purpose of the gathering, which was to turn conversation between the laboratories and private manufacturers into concrete development work. Option B is wrong because no such theme is attached to this meet in the release. Option C is wrong for the same reason, though it sounds plausible for a research event. Option D is a generic slogan and is not the theme here. An aspirant should tie the theme to the other identifying facts of the event: the name VIMARSH, the date of 15 September 2026, the venue of New Delhi, and the presence of Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh, who unveiled the new policy initiatives for MSMEs and deep-tech start-ups.

Q3.Reports & IndicesMedium

According to the PLFS bulletin for August 2026, what was the overall Labour Force Participation Rate for persons aged 15 years and above?

  1. A.52.8 per cent
  2. B.55.6 per cent
  3. C.58.2 per cent
  4. D.50.4 per cent
Show answer

Correct answer: B. 55.6 per cent

Explanation

The correct answer is 55.6 per cent, which is the overall Labour Force Participation Rate reported for the month, up from the reading of the previous month. The distractors here are all real numbers from the same bulletin, which is exactly how a paper setter builds a question on a statistical release, so each one has to be placed correctly. Option A is the overall Worker Population Ratio, not the participation rate, and it is described in the bulletin as the highest level since March of the same year. Option C is the rural participation rate, which is always higher than the national figure because village participation is stronger. Option D is the urban participation rate, which stayed unchanged from the previous month. Learn the three headline numbers as a set and attach each to the right label.

Q4.EconomyMedium

What is the estimated value of India's total exports of goods and services during April-August 2026-27?

  1. A.345.55 billion US dollars
  2. B.399.27 billion US dollars
  3. C.459.65 billion US dollars
  4. D.215.91 billion US dollars
Show answer

Correct answer: B. 399.27 billion US dollars

Explanation

The correct answer is 399.27 billion US dollars, the cumulative figure for merchandise and services exports taken together over the five months of the current financial year covered by the release. Option A is the same cumulative export figure for the corresponding months of the previous financial year, and it is the number against which the growth rate is worked out, so it belongs in the comparison rather than in the answer. Option C is the cumulative import figure for the current period, which is larger than exports and therefore leaves a trade deficit. Option D is merchandise exports alone, that is goods without services, and a candidate who forgets that the headline number combines both will fall for it. Fix the pair together: the export value and the growth rate that goes with it.

Q5.Banking & FinanceEasy

Up to what value do merchant payments through UPI remain free of MDR under the new framework?

  1. A.1,000 rupees
  2. B.2,000 rupees
  3. C.5,000 rupees
  4. D.10,000 rupees
Show answer

Correct answer: B. 2,000 rupees

Explanation

The correct answer is 2,000 rupees. Every person-to-merchant payment at or below that value stays free of the Merchant Discount Rate, and customers pay no charge for making such payments through the platform. This threshold matters because the release uses it to explain why roughly ninety six per cent of merchant transactions are untouched: they either fall below the threshold or are covered by the zero-charge arrangement for small merchants. Option A is wrong; no such limit is set in the framework. Option C and option D are wrong for the same reason, and they are the kind of round figures a candidate guesses when the exact threshold has not been memorised. Link the threshold to the rate that applies above it, which is a nominal percentage with a fixed per-transaction cap for large payments.

Q6.Summits & ConferencesMedium

What is the theme of the World Circular Economy Forum 2026 held at Gandhinagar?

  1. A.Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity
  2. B.Waste to Wealth for a Green Tomorrow
  3. C.One Earth, One Resource, One Future
  4. D.Sustainable Consumption and Responsible Production
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity

Explanation

The correct answer is Circular Economy: Transition for People and Prosperity, the theme under which the forum is being organised at Gandhinagar. Option B echoes the idea of converting waste into wealth, which the Gujarat Chief Minister did speak about while describing Indian traditions, but it is not the theme of the forum. Option C is an invented slogan of the kind often used for environmental meetings and has no basis in the release. Option D borrows the language of sustainable development goals and is therefore plausible, but again it is not the theme announced here. An aspirant should store the theme along with the other identifying facts of this edition: the venue in Gujarat, the dates from fifteen to eighteen September, and the distinction of being the first hosting of the forum in South Asia.

Q7.NationalMedium

How many members does India's contingent for WorldSkills Shanghai 2026 have?

  1. A.48 members
  2. B.63 members
  3. C.70 members
  4. D.64 members
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 70 members

Explanation

The correct answer is 70 members, and the release adds the detail that makes it worth remembering: this is the largest contingent of skilled young competitors India has ever sent to the competition. Every wrong option here is a real number taken from the same release, which is exactly how a question on an event of this kind is built. Option A is the edition number of the competition, since this is the forty eighth in the series. Option B is the count of skill categories in which the Indian team will compete. Option D is the total number of skill competitions being held at the Shanghai edition, which is slightly larger than the number India enters. Keep the four numbers apart by attaching each to its own label, because any of them may be asked.

Q8.NationalMedium

Which two dark patterns did the Central Consumer Protection Authority find in Rapido's ride-booking interface?

  1. A.Drip pricing and bait and switch
  2. B.Confirm shaming and interface interference
  3. C.False urgency and basket sneaking
  4. D.Subscription trap and forced action
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Confirm shaming and interface interference

Explanation

The correct answer is confirm shaming and interface interference. The first was found in the prompts that told a rider, after the booking had already been made, that captains were not accepting at the quoted fare and that a higher price improves the chance of getting a ride. The authority held that this created urgency and a fear of losing the ride. The second was found in the colour-coded slider, which showed green for a higher price, a warning colour for a lower one, and gave more room to raise the fare than to reduce it. Options A, C and D all name dark patterns that appear in the same body of guidelines, which is what makes them plausible, but none of them was the finding in this order. Learn the pair together with the penalty amount.

Q9.DefenceMedium

Where was the opening ceremony of the 22nd edition of Yudh Abhyas held?

  1. A.Auli Foreign Training Node, Uttarakhand
  2. B.Mahajan Field Firing Range, Rajasthan
  3. C.Babina Military Station, Uttar Pradesh
  4. D.Deolali Cantonment, Maharashtra
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Auli Foreign Training Node, Uttarakhand

Explanation

The correct answer is the Auli Foreign Training Node in Uttarakhand, where the opening ceremony of this edition was conducted. Option B names the other leg of the same exercise and is the trap in this question: the drill is indeed being conducted simultaneously at the Mahajan Field Firing Range in Rajasthan, but the ceremony itself was held at Auli, not there. Option C is wrong because no station of that name figures in the release on this edition. Option D is wrong for the same reason. The safest way to remember the pair is by terrain: Auli sits in the hills and suits the mountainous and semi-mountainous training the exercise is built around, while the Rajasthan range suits the demonstration of contemporary weapon systems and the flying of drones and autonomous systems.

Q10.DefenceMedium

How many Licensing Agreements for Transfer of Technology were handed over at VIMARSH, and to how many manufacturing partners?

  1. A.Five agreements to nine partners
  2. B.Nine agreements to 13 partners
  3. C.Thirteen agreements to nine partners
  4. D.Eleven agreements to 15 partners
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Nine agreements to 13 partners

Explanation

The correct answer is nine agreements to 13 partners. The release records that nine Licensing Agreements for Transfer of Technology, written in short as LAToTs, were handed over to that many manufacturing partners in the presence of the Raksha Mantri, so that they may take up commercial production of the systems involved. Option C reverses the two numbers and is the trap most likely to catch a hurried reader, so note the order carefully: the count of agreements is the smaller of the two. Option A understates the number of agreements. Option D invents both figures. Remember also that one agreement can cover more than one partner, which is why the number of partners is larger than the number of licences signed at this meet.

Q11.Reports & IndicesEasy

Which organisation conducts the Periodic Labour Force Survey?

  1. A.Reserve Bank of India
  2. B.NITI Aayog
  3. C.National Statistical Office under MoSPI
  4. D.Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour
Show answer

Correct answer: C. National Statistical Office under MoSPI

Explanation

The correct answer is the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The bulletin describes the survey as the primary source of data on activity participation and on employment and unemployment conditions of the population. Option A is wrong because the central bank publishes monetary and banking statistics, not this labour survey, though the bulletin does note that the latest services sector data comes from that source in trade releases. Option B is wrong because the policy think tank does not run household surveys of this kind. Option D is a strong distractor, since that body has historically compiled labour statistics, but the survey in question is not its product. Remember the pairing of survey and agency along with the monthly bulletin series, which reached its seventeenth issue with the August reading.

Q12.EconomyHard

Which commodity group recorded an export growth of 89.82 per cent in August 2026?

  1. A.Engineering goods
  2. B.Petroleum products
  3. C.Electronic goods
  4. D.Marine products
Show answer

Correct answer: C. Electronic goods

Explanation

The correct answer is electronic goods, whose exports in the month climbed from 2.93 billion dollars a year earlier to 5.55 billion dollars, a jump the release lists first among the drivers of merchandise export growth. Option A is wrong; engineering goods did grow, but at a far smaller rate, rising from 9.87 billion dollars to 12.32 billion. Option B is wrong as well; petroleum products grew strongly in the month, yet their rate was lower than that of electronics. Option D is wrong because marine products appear only in the longer list of commodity groups with positive growth and are nowhere near the top. The lesson for an aspirant is to attach the highest growth rate of the month to electronics, and to remember that the release names the drivers in descending order of importance.

Q13.Banking & FinanceMedium

Under which law has the new UPI framework been introduced?

  1. A.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
  2. B.Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
  3. C.Consumer Protection Act, 2019
  4. D.Information Technology Act, 2000
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007

Explanation

The correct answer is the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, the statute named in the release as the basis of the framework. The framework was brought in after detailed deliberations by the UPI Steering Committee on the rates, the operational arrangements and the safeguards for consumers. Option A is wrong because that statute governs the regulation of banks rather than payment systems. Option C is wrong because consumer protection law deals with unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements, not the design of a payment charge. Option D is wrong because the information technology statute governs electronic records and cyber offences. An aspirant should also remember that the framework is described as consistent with the recommendation of the Standing Committee on Finance about the need for a viable revenue stream.

Q14.Summits & ConferencesHard

Which of these is a co-organiser of the World Circular Economy Forum 2026 in India?

  1. A.United Nations Environment Programme
  2. B.The Finnish Innovation Fund Sitra
  3. C.World Economic Forum
  4. D.International Energy Agency
Show answer

Correct answer: B. The Finnish Innovation Fund Sitra

Explanation

The correct answer is the Finnish Innovation Fund Sitra. The release lists the organisers as the Central Pollution Control Board, that Finnish fund, the Government of Finland, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, the Government of Gujarat and the Gujarat Pollution Control Board. Option A is wrong because the United Nations environment body is not named among the organisers, even though the subject falls within its field. Option C is wrong because the forum at Gandhinagar is distinct from the annual meeting of that body. Option D is wrong because the energy agency works on energy markets and security rather than circularity. Remember the Finnish connection through the other detail in the release as well: the Ambassador of Finland spoke of keeping resource consumption below the level of 2015 by the year 2035.

Q15.NationalEasy

Where and when is the 48th WorldSkills Competition being held?

  1. A.Lyon, France, in October 2026
  2. B.Shanghai, China, from 22 to 27 September 2026
  3. C.Singapore, from 22 to 27 September 2026
  4. D.Tokyo, Japan, in November 2026
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Shanghai, China, from 22 to 27 September 2026

Explanation

The correct answer is Shanghai in China, from the twenty second to the twenty seventh of September. The Indian contingent was flagged off a week earlier from Kaushal Bhawan in New Delhi so that the competitors could reach the host city in time. Option A names the venue of the previous edition, where India finished thirteenth with four bronze medals and a dozen medallions for excellence, so it is the trap for anyone who confuses the last edition with this one. Option C gives the right dates with the wrong host city, which is the harder trap of the two. Option D invents both the city and the month. Tie the host city to the name of the edition, since these competitions are always known by the city that hosts them.

Q16.NationalHard

Under which guidelines are dark patterns identified and regulated in India?

  1. A.Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023
  2. B.Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines, 2025
  3. C.E-Commerce Rules, 2020
  4. D.Digital Advertising Code, 2022
Show answer

Correct answer: A. Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023

Explanation

The correct answer is the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns of 2023, under which both the findings in this order are identified as recognised dark patterns. Option B is the trap, and a good one: those guidelines were indeed cited in the same order, but for a different point, namely that a tipping feature may be made available only after the ride has been completed and not at the time of booking or during the ride. Option C names a set of rules that governs online marketplaces rather than the classification of manipulative design. Option D is invented. An aspirant should keep the two real instruments apart by their subject: one classifies deceptive interface design, the other governs how ride aggregators must behave, including when a tip may be sought.

Q17.DefenceMedium

What is the stated aim of Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026?

  1. A.Joint disaster relief in coastal districts
  2. B.Joint capability for employing Integrated Battle Groups in mountainous and semi-mountainous terrain
  3. C.Joint anti-piracy patrolling in the Indian Ocean
  4. D.Joint air-defence drills against ballistic missiles
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Joint capability for employing Integrated Battle Groups in mountainous and semi-mountainous terrain

Explanation

The correct answer is joint capability for employing Integrated Battle Groups in mountainous and semi-mountainous terrain, with emphasis on infantry-dominated operations. That is the aim the release sets out, and it explains why one leg of the drill is held in the hills at Auli. Option A is wrong because this is an army-to-army field exercise, not a humanitarian assistance and disaster relief drill. Option C is wrong because anti-piracy patrolling is naval work and has nothing to do with the two armies training here. Option D is wrong because no air-defence or missile-interception role is described for this edition. Along with the aim, remember the supporting objectives named in the release: stronger interoperability, an exchange of best operational practices, and sharper joint planning and execution by the two armies.

Q18.DefenceHard

With which body did DRDO sign a contract for SAMAR version 2.0?

  1. A.Bureau of Indian Standards
  2. B.Quality Council of India
  3. C.National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories
  4. D.Society of Indian Defence Manufacturers
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Quality Council of India

Explanation

The correct answer is the Quality Council of India. DRDO signed a contract with it for the System for Advance Manufacturing Assessment and Rating, whose second version will benchmark how mature the manufacturing capability of domestic defence enterprises really is. Option A is wrong because the standards body was not named as the partner for this contract. Option C is wrong for the same reason, even though accreditation of laboratories sounds close to the subject. Option D is the trap: strategic memoranda of understanding were indeed exchanged with the Society of Indian Defence Manufacturers and with Laghu Udyog Bharati at the same event, but those were outreach agreements, not the SAMAR contract. Keep the three agreements separate in memory, because a question can be set on any one of them.

Q19.Reports & IndicesMedium

What was the rural unemployment rate in August 2026 as per the PLFS bulletin?

  1. A.4.1 per cent
  2. B.4.5 per cent
  3. C.5.0 per cent
  4. D.6.8 per cent
Show answer

Correct answer: A. 4.1 per cent

Explanation

The correct answer is 4.1 per cent, and the bulletin adds the detail that makes it memorable: this is the lowest rural reading since January of the same year. Option B is the rural rate of the previous month, from which the figure declined, so it is the trap for anyone who remembers the direction of change but not the endpoint. Option C is the overall unemployment rate for the month, covering rural and urban areas together, which stayed broadly stable. Option D is the urban rate, which was slightly above the previous month and is always higher than the rural one in this series. A useful way to hold these numbers is to rank them: rural lowest, overall in the middle and urban highest, with the gap between village and town explaining much of the national average.

Q20.EconomyEasy

Which ministry releases India's monthly merchandise and services trade data?

  1. A.Ministry of Finance
  2. B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  3. C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  4. D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Explanation

The correct answer is the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, which issued these estimates for the month and for the cumulative period of the financial year. Option A is wrong because the finance ministry handles taxation, expenditure and the budget rather than the monthly trade release, although it does publish revenue collections. Option C is wrong because the statistics ministry brings out national income and labour force data, not the export and import bulletin. Option D is wrong because corporate affairs deals with company law and registration. One more caution is worth remembering with this release: the services figures for the latest month are an estimate, since the released data for that sector covers only the previous month, and the earlier months of the year have been revised using quarterly balance of payments data.

Q21.Banking & FinanceHard

What MDR applies to UPI transactions above 2,000 rupees in essential and thin-margin sectors such as railways, telecom and insurance?

  1. A.A flat charge of 5 rupees per transaction
  2. B.0.4 per cent of the transaction value
  3. C.0.02 per cent of the transaction value
  4. D.No charge at all
Show answer

Correct answer: A. A flat charge of 5 rupees per transaction

Explanation

The correct answer is a flat charge of five rupees per transaction. The release explains the reasoning: a fixed amount gives cost certainty to critical public services and to businesses that work on narrow margins, which a percentage charge would not. Option B is the general rate for merchant payments above the threshold and applies outside these named sectors, so it is the most tempting wrong answer. Option C is the far lower rate set for payments relating to mutual funds, securities, stockbrokers and dealers, meant to keep retail investors in formal financial markets. Option D is wrong because these sectors are not exempt; they simply pay a flat amount instead of a percentage. Remember the named sectors as a list, since a question may ask which of them is covered.

Q22.Summits & ConferencesHard

How many recyclers were registered under India's Extended Producer Responsibility frameworks as of August 2026?

  1. A.1,802 recyclers
  2. B.3,402 recyclers
  3. C.4,802 recyclers
  4. D.8,300 recyclers
Show answer

Correct answer: C. 4,802 recyclers

Explanation

The correct answer is 4,802 recyclers, the figure the Union Environment Minister gave while describing how regulatory reform and digital compliance systems have moved India towards a circular economy. The same sentence carries two companion numbers worth learning together: more than eighty three thousand producers registered under the various frameworks, and nearly four hundred and eighty two lakh metric tonnes of waste processed across regulated waste streams. Option A and option B are invented figures placed close to the right one, which is the usual way of testing whether a candidate has memorised the exact number. Option D is a distortion of the producers figure and is designed to catch anyone who has mixed up the two categories. Keep producers and recyclers separate in memory, since a question may ask for either.

Q23.NationalHard

At which edition of the WorldSkills Competition did India secure the 13th position?

  1. A.WorldSkills 2015
  2. B.WorldSkills Asia 2025
  3. C.WorldSkills Lyon 2024
  4. D.WorldSkills Shanghai 2026
Show answer

Correct answer: C. WorldSkills Lyon 2024

Explanation

The correct answer is WorldSkills Lyon 2024, where India secured four Bronze Medals and twelve Medallions for Excellence along with that placing. The release uses the result to show a steady climb in performance at international skill competitions. Option A is the earlier benchmark in the same sentence, when India stood at the twenty ninth position, so it marks the starting point of the climb rather than its result. Option B refers to the continental event, at which India secured the eighth position in Asia, a different competition with a different ranking system. Option D is the edition yet to be held at the time of the send-off, so no result exists for it. Learn the three results as a sequence, because a question may ask which came first or which was the best.

Q24.NationalEasy

Under which law does the Central Consumer Protection Authority exercise its powers?

  1. A.Competition Act, 2002
  2. B.Consumer Protection Act, 2019
  3. C.Legal Metrology Act, 2009
  4. D.Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Show answer

Correct answer: B. Consumer Protection Act, 2019

Explanation

The correct answer is the Consumer Protection Act of 2019, under whose statutory mandate the authority acts to protect consumers as a class, to prevent unfair trade practices and to ensure that no false or misleading advertisement is made about goods or services. Option A is wrong because competition law is enforced by a different regulator and targets anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominance. Option C is wrong because legal metrology deals with weights, measures and packaged commodity declarations. Option D is wrong because that statute concerns supplies of essential goods and price control. Remember alongside this that aggrieved consumers may take complaints about misleading advertisements, unfair trade practices or dark patterns to the National Consumer Helpline, whose number is given in the release.

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