In the context of the banking sector of India, what is the full form of IMPS?
- A.Instant Payment Sector
- B.Immediate Payment Service
- C.Immediate Payment Sector
- D.Instant Payment Service
Correct answer
B. Immediate Payment Service
Explanation
The correct answer is B, Immediate Payment Service. IMPS is an interbank money transfer service run by the National Payments Corporation of India, launched in November 2010. Its great advantage is that it works round the clock, on holidays and at night, and the money reaches the beneficiary within seconds. A transfer can be made using the account number with the IFSC code, or using the mobile number with the MMID, and it can be started from mobile banking, internet banking, an ATM or a branch. NPCI, set up in 2008 as an umbrella body for retail payments, also runs UPI, RuPay, NACH, AePS and FASTag. Option A is wrong because the letter S stands for service, not sector. Option C is wrong for the same reason. Option D is wrong because the first word is immediate, not instant. Exam tip: NEFT and RTGS are run by the RBI, while IMPS and UPI are run by NPCI; RTGS is meant for amounts of two lakh rupees and above.
Practice Questions
View allAn unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money is
- A.Cheque
- B.Bill of Exchange
- C.Promissory Note
- D.Hundi
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Promissory Note
Explanation
The correct answer is C, Promissory Note. Section 4 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 defines a promissory note as an instrument in writing, signed by the maker, containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to or to the order of a certain person. The word that decides the question is undertaking, that is a promise: only two parties are involved, the maker who promises and the payee who receives. A currency note is left out of the definition even though the Reserve Bank promises to pay on it. Option B is wrong because a bill of exchange, under Section 5, carries an unconditional order to pay, not a promise, and has three parties: drawer, drawee and payee. Option A is wrong because a cheque, under Section 6, is only a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and payable on demand, so it too is an order. Option D is wrong because a hundi is a traditional instrument in a regional language, not defined by the Act. Exam tip: promise means promissory note, order means bill or cheque.
The rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers is called the ______.
- A.Bank Rate
- B.Cash Reserve Ratio
- C.Reverse Repo Rate
- D.Repo Rate
Show answer
Correct answer: A. Bank Rate
Explanation
The correct answer is A, Bank Rate. Section 49 of the Reserve Bank Of India Act defines the bank rate as the standard rate at which the Bank is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial paper eligible for purchase. It is long term lending by the RBI without any collateral being pledged, so it is higher than the repo rate; today it is aligned with the marginal standing facility rate and is used mainly for penal interest when a bank falls short of its reserve requirements. Option B is wrong because the cash reserve ratio is the share of net demand and time liabilities a bank must keep as cash with the RBI, not a rate of lending. Option C is wrong because the reverse repo rate is what the RBI pays banks when it absorbs their surplus funds. Option D is wrong because the repo rate is short term lending by the RBI against government securities. Exam tip: bank rate means no collateral and a long term, repo means securities pledged for a short term.
Which of the following is a payments bank NOT permitted to do?
- A.Accept demand deposits up to a prescribed ceiling
- B.Issue debit cards
- C.Grant loans and issue credit cards
- D.Remit money and make payments
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Grant loans and issue credit cards
Explanation
The correct answer is C, grant loans and issue credit cards. A payments bank is a differentiated bank licensed on the lines suggested by the Nachiket Mor Committee to carry payments and small savings to people the branch network had not reached. It is deliberately kept out of lending, so it takes no credit risk and must invest its deposits in safe government securities and bank deposits.
Option A is allowed, subject to a ceiling on the balance per customer that the Reserve Bank fixes. Option B is allowed, and a payments bank may issue debit or ATM cards although not credit cards. Option D is its core business, since remittances and payments are the purpose for which the class was created. India Post Payments Bank, which began on 1 September 2018, is the best known example. A small finance bank, by contrast, is allowed to lend and must direct most of its lending to small borrowers.
Which among the following is a public sector bank?
- A.Axis Bank
- B.ICICI Bank
- C.Bank of Baroda
- D.Yes Bank
Show answer
Correct answer: C. Bank of Baroda
Explanation
The correct answer is C, Bank of Baroda. It was founded in 1908 by Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III, nationalised in the first round of July 1969, and the Government of India still holds the majority of its shares, which is what makes a bank a public sector bank. In 2019 it absorbed Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank.
Option A, Axis Bank, began life in 1994 as UTI Bank, the first of the new private banks licensed after the RBI guidelines of 1993. Option B, ICICI Bank, grew out of a development finance institution and is a private sector bank. Option D, Yes Bank, is also private and started business in 2004. A quick test in the examination hall: if the bank was nationalised in 1969 or 1980, or is the State Bank of India, it is a public sector bank; if it was licensed in the 1990s or later, it is private.
Scheduled banks in India are those banks which are included in which schedule of which Act?
- A.First Schedule of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- B.Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
- C.Second Schedule of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- D.Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
Show answer
Correct answer: B. Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Explanation
The correct answer is B, the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. A bank is placed in that Schedule once it has the prescribed paid-up capital and reserves and satisfies the Reserve Bank that its affairs are not conducted in a manner harmful to depositors. Inclusion brings the right to borrow from the RBI at the bank rate, membership of the clearing house and access to the money market.
Options A and C name the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which is the law on licensing, inspection and winding up of banks but does not carry the list of scheduled banks, so both are wrong. Option D, the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, contains the Union, State and Concurrent Lists and has nothing to do with banks, although banking itself is an entry in the Union List. Remember the pair: RBI Act 1934 for the Second Schedule, Banking Regulation Act 1949 for regulation.