Indian Polity Mixed Quiz: Set 8

The correct answer is 26 November 1949. On that day the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution, and the date is now observed every year as Constitution Day. Some provisions, such as those on citizenship, elections, the provisional Parliament and temporary and transitional matters, took effect on 26 November 1949 itself.

26 January 1950 is the trap in this question: it is the date the Constitution came into force, now celebrated as Republic Day, not the date it was adopted. The day was chosen because the Congress had observed 26 January as Purna Swaraj Day in 1930. The other two options, 26 November 1950 and 26 January 1949, simply swap the years and match no event in the making of the Constitution. When you revise, keep the pair together in the right order: adopted on 26 November 1949, in force from 26 January 1950.

The correct answer is D, Article 343. Article 343(1) says the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script, and that the international form of Indian numerals shall be used for official purposes. It also allowed English to continue for fifteen years from 1950; the Official Languages Act 1963 then kept English alongside Hindi beyond 1965. Articles 343 to 351 form Part XVII on Official Language, and Hindi Diwas is celebrated on 14 September because the Constituent Assembly adopted Hindi as the official language on that day in 1949. Note that India has no 'national language'; Hindi is the official language of the Union, and the Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages. Option A is wrong because Article 370 gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Option B is wrong because Article 51A lists the Fundamental Duties. Option C is wrong because Article 80 is about the composition of the Rajya Sabha. Exam tip: 343 = Hindi in Devanagari, 344 = Official Language Commission, 348 = language of the courts.

The correct answer is the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). In the Berubari Union case of 1960 the Supreme Court had said that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution, though it is a key to the minds of its makers. In Kesavananda Bharati the Court rejected that view and held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended, provided its basic features are not changed.

The Berubari Union case is the earlier decision that was reversed, so it cannot be the answer. The LIC of India case of 1995 came later and only reaffirmed that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution; it did not reverse anything. The Golaknath case of 1967 concerned Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights, not the status of the Preamble. The word "reverse" in the question is the clue: it points to the case that overturned Berubari, which is Kesavananda Bharati.

The correct answer is C, Repeal of the Indian Independence Act, 1947. Article 395, the last article of the Constitution, repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, along with the laws that amended or added to the 1935 Act. By removing these British laws, the framers made the Constitution the only source of legal authority in India and ended the legal link with the British Parliament. The article makes one exception: the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 was not repealed. Article 395 sits in Part XXII with Article 393 (short title) and Article 394 (commencement), and it took effect on 26 January 1950. Option A is wrong because the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 is an ordinary law made by Parliament, not an article of the Constitution. Option B is wrong because new states are formed under Articles 2 and 3. Option D is wrong because a national emergency is proclaimed under Article 352. Exam tip: Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act 1947 and the Government of India Act 1935.

The correct answer is Article 25 to Article 28. The Right to Freedom of Religion has four Articles: Article 25 gives freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion; Article 26 lets every religious denomination manage its own religious affairs; Article 27 says no one can be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion of a particular religion; and Article 28 bars religious instruction in educational institutions wholly maintained out of State funds.

Each wrong option is another group of Fundamental Rights: Articles 14 to 18 are the Right to Equality, Articles 19 to 22 the Right to Freedom, and Articles 29 and 30 the Cultural and Educational Rights. So this question really tests whether you know where each group begins and ends. If you remember the six starting points, 14, 19, 23, 25, 29 and 32, you can answer every question of this kind. Note too that these Articles were in the Constitution from 1950, long before the word "secular" was added to the Preamble in 1976.

The correct answer is C, the Governor of the State. Under Article 316, the Chairman and the other members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor. The provisions on public service commissions sit in Part XIV of the Constitution, Articles 315 to 323. A member of a State commission holds office for six years or until the age of 62, whichever comes first. The twist a paper setter loves is removal: although the Governor appoints them, only the President can remove them, under Article 317, and the Governor can only suspend a member while the matter is referred to the Supreme Court. Option A is wrong because the UPSC Chairman has no role in choosing the head of a State commission. Option B is wrong because the President appoints the UPSC Chairman, not the head of the BPSC or any other State commission. Option D is wrong because the Chief Minister only advises; the formal appointment is made by the Governor. Exam tip: appointed by the Governor, removed by the President, term six years or age 62.

The correct answer is Article 44. It says: "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India." A uniform civil code would replace the separate personal laws of different religious communities on marriage, divorce, inheritance and adoption with one common law for all citizens. Being a Directive Principle, it cannot be enforced in court, and the Supreme Court has more than once urged the government to act on it. Goa has long had a common civil code, and Uttarakhand passed its own Uniform Civil Code in 2024.

The other options are Directive Principles on different subjects: Article 39 is about livelihood, the distribution of resources and equal pay; Article 40 is about village panchayats; and Article 50 is about separating the judiciary from the executive. Remember too that the Uniform Civil Code is usually classed as a liberal-intellectual principle, not a Gandhian one, a point examiners also test.

The correct answer is C, 1 and 3 only. The CAG of India is an auditor who checks spending after it happens; he has no say over money leaving the treasury. He is appointed by the President under Article 148, and his duties are laid down in the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. He audits all spending from the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State, and also the accounts of bodies substantially financed from Union or State revenues. His reports on Union accounts go to the President under Article 151, who has them laid before Parliament, where the Public Accounts Committee examines them. Statement 2 is wrong because money is drawn from the Consolidated Fund by the executive under an Appropriation Act, and unlike his British counterpart, India's CAG does not control its issue. That rules out options A, B and D, since each of them includes statement 2. Exam tip: India's CAG is an auditor-general rather than a comptroller; he audits, he does not release money.

The correct answer is C, 1 and 3 only. Article 85 lets the President summon each House 'at such time and place as he thinks fit', and no article fixes a minimum number of sitting days. The only rule in Article 85(1) is that the gap between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next must not exceed six months, so Parliament has to meet at least twice a year. The President summons, prorogues and dissolves on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Statement 2 is wrong because the Constitution does not mention three sessions at all; the Budget, Monsoon and Winter sessions are only a convention. Statement 1 is right because Article 85 gives the President the choice of place as well as time. Statement 3 is right because no minimum is laid down, which is why the NCRWC (2002) suggested at least 120 sitting days a year for the Lok Sabha. So A, B and D are wrong. Exam tip: Article 85, six-month maximum gap, three sessions by convention only.

The correct answer is B, Third Schedule. The Third Schedule of the Constitution gives the forms of oaths or affirmations for important constitutional posts. It covers Union ministers, candidates for election to Parliament, Members of Parliament, judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General, and at the state level ministers, candidates for the legislature, MLAs and High Court judges. The oaths of the President and the Vice-President are not in this Schedule; they are given in Articles 60 and 69. A is wrong because the Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment in 1992, lists the subjects given to Panchayats. C is wrong because the Ninth Schedule, added by the First Amendment in 1951, protects certain land reform and other laws from challenge in court. D is wrong because the First Schedule lists the names of the states and union territories and their territories. Exam tip: 1st = states and UTs, 3rd = oaths, 7th = Union, State and Concurrent Lists, 10th = anti-defection, 11th = Panchayats, 12th = Municipalities.

The correct answer is A, A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1. Each committee is remembered for one clear idea, and the code joins them in the order 1957, 1977, 1985 and 1986. The Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) proposed the three-tier system of Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti and Gram Panchayat, which Rajasthan launched first at Nagaur on 2 October 1959. The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) wanted only two tiers, the Zilla Parishad and the Mandal Panchayat. The G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985) suggested a District Development Commissioner, and the L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986) asked for constitutional status, which finally came with the 73rd Amendment of 1992. Option B is wrong because it swaps the two-tier plan of Ashok Mehta with the district commissioner of G.V.K. Rao. Option C is wrong because constitutional status was the Singhvi demand, not the Balwantrai Mehta one. Option D is wrong because it gives Balwantrai Mehta the Singhvi idea and also mixes up B and C. Exam tip: Mehta 1957 three tiers, Ashok Mehta 1977 two tiers, Singhvi 1986 constitutional status.

The correct answer is A, The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act. The 42nd Amendment of 1976, passed on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, added a new Part IV-A with a single Article 51A listing ten Fundamental Duties of citizens, such as respecting the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem, protecting the environment and developing the scientific temper. The idea was taken from the constitution of the former USSR. An eleventh duty, that a parent or guardian must provide education to a child between six and fourteen years, was added by the 86th Amendment of 2002. The duties are not enforceable by courts, but Parliament may make laws to enforce them. B, the 44th Amendment of 1978, undid many Emergency-era changes and made the right to property a legal right. C, the 85th Amendment of 2001, dealt with consequential seniority in promotion for SC and ST employees. D, the 92nd Amendment of 2003, added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule. Exam tip: the 42nd Amendment of 1976 added Part IV-A, Article 51A and ten duties; the 86th Amendment of 2002 made them eleven.

The correct answer is D, A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv. Each case tested an amendment against the basic structure of the Constitution. In Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975), the Supreme Court struck down the part of the 39th Amendment that put the Prime Minister's election beyond the courts, holding free and fair elections to be part of the basic structure. In Minerva Mills (1980), it struck down clauses of the 42nd Amendment that gave Parliament unlimited power to amend and let all Directive Principles override the rights in Articles 14 and 19. In Kihoto Hollohan (1992), it upheld the anti-defection law brought by the 52nd Amendment but kept the Speaker's decision open to judicial review. In P. Sambamurthy (1987), it struck down a clause of Article 371D, added by the 32nd Amendment, that let the state government overrule a tribunal. Option A is wrong because it links Raj Narain with the 42nd Amendment. Option B is wrong because it pairs Minerva Mills with the 52nd. Option C is wrong because it pairs Raj Narain with the 32nd. Exam tip: 39th–Raj Narain, 42nd–Minerva, 52nd–Kihoto, 32nd–Sambamurthy.

The correct answer is B, Article 61. It lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President, the only ground being "violation of the Constitution". The charge may be started in either House by a resolution signed by at least one-fourth of its members, with fourteen days' notice, and must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House. The other House then investigates, the President may appear and be represented, and if it too passes the resolution by a two-thirds majority the President stands removed. No Indian President has ever been impeached. A, Article 51, is a Directive Principle on promoting international peace and security. C, Article 63, simply says there shall be a Vice-President of India. D, Article 54, is about the election of the President by the electoral college. Exam tip: 54 election, 56 term, 61 impeachment, 63 Vice-President.

The correct answer is D, Certiorari. Certiorari means 'to be certified' or 'to be informed'. By this writ a higher court orders a lower court or tribunal to send up a case pending before it, or quashes an order it has already passed, when there is lack of jurisdiction, excess of jurisdiction or an error of law. The Supreme Court issues writs under Article 32 and the High Courts under Article 226. Prohibition and certiorari look alike, so note the timing: prohibition stops a case while it is still going on, while certiorari can also cancel a decision already made. Option A is wrong because prohibition only forbids a lower court from going beyond its jurisdiction; it does not transfer the case. Option B is wrong because mandamus, 'we command', orders a public official or body to do a duty it has failed to do. Option C is wrong because quo warranto, 'by what authority', asks a person to show his right to hold a public office. Exam tip: Certiorari = send up or quash; Prohibition = stop; Mandamus = do your duty.

The correct answer is C, Article 74. Article 74 says there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall act according to that advice. The words making the advice binding were added by the 42nd Amendment of 1976. The 44th Amendment of 1978 let the President send the advice back once for reconsideration, but the President must accept the advice given after that. Courts cannot inquire into what advice the ministers gave. Article 75 deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers, and Article 78 with the Prime Minister's duty to keep the President informed. A is wrong because Article 70 covers the President's functions in other contingencies. B is wrong because Article 50 is a Directive Principle on separating the judiciary from the executive. D is wrong because Article 84 lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. Exam tip: Art 52 = President, Art 63 = Vice-President, Art 74 = Council of Ministers to advise the President, Art 75 = appointment of PM and ministers, Art 78 = PM's duties.

The correct answer is D, He is a whole-time counsel for the Government. The Attorney-General is not a full-time government servant and may keep a private practice. He is appointed by the President under Article 76 and holds office during the pleasure of the President, with no term fixed by the Constitution. He is the highest law officer of the country, yet he is not a member of the Union Cabinet. Because he is not a whole-time counsel, the only bar on him is that he must not advise or hold briefs against the Government of India. Option A is a correct statement because Article 88 lets him speak and take part in either House of Parliament, though he cannot vote. Option B is a correct statement because Article 76(3) gives him a right of audience in all courts in India. Option C is a correct statement because Article 76(1) requires the qualifications of a Supreme Court judge. Exam tip: Article 76 creates the office, Article 88 lets him speak in Parliament, and he never gets a vote there.

The correct answer is C, Article 343. Article 343(1) declares that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script, with the international form of Indian numerals for official purposes. Part XVII of the Constitution, Articles 343 to 351, deals with official language. Article 343 allowed English to continue for fifteen years from 1950, and the Official Languages Act of 1963 kept English alongside Hindi after that period. Article 344 provides for a Commission and a Committee of Parliament on official language, and the Eighth Schedule lists the languages recognised by the Constitution. A is wrong because Article 351 is only a directive to promote and develop Hindi. B is wrong because Article 336 gives a special provision for the Anglo-Indian community in certain services. D is wrong because Article 347 lets the President recognise a language spoken by a section of a State's population. Exam tip: Article 343 = Hindi in Devanagari as the official language; Article 351 = directive to develop Hindi; Articles 343 to 351 make up Part XVII.

The correct answer is A, a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i. Article 263 allows the President to set up an Inter-State Council to discuss disputes and common subjects among states; the council was first formed in 1990 on the Sarkaria Commission's advice. Article 226 gives every High Court the power to issue writs such as habeas corpus and mandamus, not only for Fundamental Rights but also 'for any other purpose', which makes it wider than the Supreme Court's power under Article 32. Article 239 says each Union Territory is run by the President through an administrator appointed by him. Article 280 requires a Finance Commission every five years to recommend how tax revenue is shared between the Centre and the states. Option B is wrong because it links Article 263 with the Finance Commission and Article 280 with Union Territories. Option C is wrong because it links Article 263 with the High Court and Article 226 with the Finance Commission. Option D is wrong because it links Article 263 with Union Territories and Article 239 with the Inter-State Council. Exam tip: 263 Inter-State Council, 226 High Court writs, 239 UTs, 280 Finance Commission.

The correct answer is D, French Revolution. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution come from the French Revolution of 1789, whose famous slogan was made of these three words. The makers of the Constitution borrowed from many countries and then shaped the ideas to suit India. From France came these three ideals and the idea of a republic. From the former USSR came the ideals of social, economic and political justice and, later, the Fundamental Duties. Britain gave the parliamentary system and Ireland the Directive Principles. A is wrong because the Russian Revolution of 1917 is linked with the ideal of justice, not with this trio. B is wrong because the Magna Carta of 1215 was an English charter that limited the king's power, and it is linked with the idea of rights in general. C is wrong because the American model gave India its Fundamental Rights, judicial review and an independent judiciary. Exam tip: liberty, equality, fraternity, France; justice, USSR; Directive Principles, Ireland; parliamentary system, Britain.